AP Unit 2 Test Bank

These are a lot of review questions on material from last year. Refresh your brains. 1) The primary goal of the American Revolution was to A) establish a new political system B) create a new economic order C) institutionalize new social values based on equality D) restore rights the colonists felt were already theirs as British subjects 6) Right after the Revolutionary War, a dramatic change swept through the new country: A) a dramatic increase in democracy and freedom. B) a population shift from country to city. C) an explosion in prosperity. D) a population shift from the cities to the country. E) full-scale industrialization. 4) After the Revolution, James Madison observed that the most common and durable source of faction has been A) racial inequalities. B) the various and unequal divisions of property. C) urban and rural divisions. D) aristocracy. E) the British army. 3) Beginning in 1781, the U.S. was governed under the A) Articles of Confederation B) British Constitution C) Mayflower Compact D) current U.S. Constitution E) Basic Law of 1781 5) Among the factors that contributed to economic turmoil under the Articles of Confederation was the A) power shift from middle-class farmers to wealthy landowners. B) state legislatures that favored creditors and created more debt. C) postwar depression that left many small farmers unable to pay their debts and threatened mortgage foreclosure. D) decreasing economic viability of slavery. E) existence of all these factors. 2) A small band of farmers in Western Massachusetts took up arm in what is remembered as A) Shays Rebellion. B) the Whiskey Rebellion. C) King Georges War. D) the Farmers Revolt. E) the Boston Tea Party.

7) Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the power to A) maintain an army and navy. B) levy taxes. C) regulate commerce. D) overturn state laws. E) All of these. 8) What was the original, sole, and express purpose of the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia? A) Revise the Articles of Confederation B) Abolish the Articles of Confederation C) To grant women the right to vote D) To choose the first president E) To negotiate the peace treaty with Great Britain 9) The view of human nature most prevalent among the Founding Fathers was that A) People are basically cooperative and community-oriented B) People are self-interested in acquiring wealth and power C) Human nature can be perfected, given the right social and political institutions D) Men abhor power and the burdens that come with it (Hint: Think about Madisons view on the reason for factions) 10) At the time of the Constitutional Convention, slavery A) was illegal only in Massachusetts B) was prohibited north of the Mason Dixon line C) existed only in Georgia and the Carolinas D) was permitted in all 13 states E) was prohibited by the Connecticut Compromise, which was never put into effect 11) The Connecticut Compromise at the Constitutional Convention A) resolved the impasse between those who favored the New Jersey Plan and those who preferred the Virginia Plan B) threw out the idea of having a monarchy in the United States, opting instead for an indirectly elected president C) settled the dispute over whether slavery should be allowed in the final constitution D) added the Bill of Rights to the Constitution in order to lessen concerns about too much power for the new government E) involved all of these elements

13) On the issue of slaves, the Constitution specified A) that slaves would count as three-fifths person for counting the nations population and determining seats in the House B) nothingit was too controversial a subject and the delegates could not agree on anything regarding it. C) that a gradual end to slavery must be worked out by Congress and the states within ten years D) a boundary, known as the Mason Dixon line, south of which slavery would be legal. E) that slavery would be banned beginning in 1800 15) Regarding the right to vote in national elections, the framers of the Constitution A) decided to leave it up to the individual states to determine voter qualifications in their own states B) included a requirement that all free, adult males be allowed to vote C) required that all free adult males with p[property be worth at least 50$ to be allowed to vote D) provided that free men and women over the age of 20 be allowed to vote E) finally granted women the right to vote 16) A major purpose of the economic provisions in the Constitution was to A) guarantee the states a significant economic role B) preserve and strengthen the farm economy to the disadvantage of manufacturing C) create a strong national government so as to bring stability out of economic chaos D) establish a comprehensive set of social welfare programs to assist people in times of need 17) The Madisonian requirement that each branch of government acquire the consent of the others for many of its actions created a system of A) separation of powers B) checks and balances C) constitutional republic D) confederated government E) cross-cutting requirements 18) The Federalist Papers were A) essays in support of ratification of the constitution. B) the original name of the constitution written by the Constitutional Convention. C) essays written that were critical of the constitution. D) the notes that George Washington took at the Constitutional Convention. E) newspapers which backed the Federalist Party in the early U.S. elections. 19) Ratification of the Constitution A) needed the approval of nine states.

B) occurred when it was approved by the delegates to the Constitutional Convention. C) needed the approval of a majority of the people. D) needed the approval of all the states. E) was by two-thirds vote of the Continental Congress. 20) Which of the following statements about the Anti-Federalists is false? A) The Anti-Federalists were basically unpatriotic and un-American. B) The Anti-Federalists believed that the new government was an enemy of freedom. C) The Anti-Federalists believed the new Constitution was a class-based document. D) The Anti-Federalists believed the new government would erode fundamental liberties. E) The Anti-Federalists fought to prevent ratification of the new constitution. 21) The Constitution was ratified by A) the state legislatures. B) special conventions in each of the states. C) popular vote in each of the states. D) state representatives to the Constitutional Convention. E) the electoral college. 23) Constitutional amendments are usually ratified by A) a two-thirds vote in each house of Congress. B) a national convention. C) legislatures of three-fourths of the states. D) state conventions called by two-thirds vote in Congress. E) a majority of the Supreme Court. 26) To propose a formal amendment to the Constitution, one needs to have a A) majority vote of the Supreme Court. B) two-thirds vote in Congress. C) three-quarters vote in Congress. D) national convention requested by half the states. 24) The most important effect of the constitutional amendments had been to A) strengthen the capitalist economy. B) expand liberty and equality. C) expand the powers of the states. D) reinforce elite control of the government. E) do all of these. (Especially in terms of the right to vote.) 25) Which of the following statements about the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) is false? A) The ERA was first proposed in 1923. B) The ERA was proposed by Congress in 1978. C) Public opinion polls showed little support for the ERA after 1960. D) The ERA was opposed by many southern states. E) The ERA never became part of the Constitution.

27) The failure of the Equal Rights Amendment showed that A) a national majority in favor of an amendment is not sufficient to add it to the Constitution. B) Congress was unwilling to support a measure opposed by a strong minority of the public. C) most states did not want to grant constitutional equality. D) men are pigs, still unwilling to grant women equal rights. E) we are a democracy, and majority opinion prevails. 30) How has the electoral college changed from the original intent of the framers? A. Almost all electors vote for the presidential candidate who wins the most popular votes in their state. B. Today, electors vote for whom they personally feel would make the best president. C. The number of electors has decreased dramatically. D. The President must now be elected by two-thirds vote of the electoral college rather than a simple majority. E. Affirmative action programs have made the student body much more diverse, although standards have also been lowered. 31) The Supreme Court in Marbury vs. Madison (1803) asserted the power of the Court to A. check the actions of the other branches through judicial review. B. determine its own size and makeup. C. confirm presidential appointments. D. nullify constitutional amendments. E. impeach the President. 22) The unwritten constitution A) has no effect on the written constitution. B) consists of traditions that are never changed. C) may have an impact on the interpretation of the Constitution. D) is gradually being written into the Constitution. E) was the Constitution that Thomas Jefferson proposed to the Constitutional Convention, which was rejected by the delegates. 28) Which of the following is established by the written Constitution? A) the committee system in Congress. B) political parties C) the right to an abortion. D) All of these are mentioned to the written Constitution. E) None of these are mentioned in the written Constitution.

29) Informal changes to the Constitution have reflected changes in all of the following EXCEPT: A) technology. B) judicial interpretation. C) constitutional amendments. D) political practice. 32) Political parties are an important example of the A. formal amendment process. B. unwritten constitution. C. rigidity of the Constitution. D. wishes of the founders. E. Third Amendment. 33) The development of the two-party system is an example of informal constitutional change through: A. political practice. B. judicial interpretation. C. technology. D. increasing demands on policymakers. E. All of these. 34) The U.S. Constitution A. is one of the oldest and longest constitutions in the world. B. gives particular detail to the function of the judiciary. C. does not prescribe the function and structure of government in detail. D. lists the executive departments that are required to advise the President. E. was modeled on the British Constitution. 35) Some scholars have suggested that a consequence of a separation of powers and checks and balances has been A. the inability of groups to get their grievances heard. B. the tyranny of the majority. C. political instability. D. fragmented policymaking processes. E. Streamlined, but hasty, government decision making. a) b) c) d) 36) In the U.S. v. Lopez, the Supreme Court ruled that The Gun Free School Zones Act violated citizens rights to bear arms. Illegal immigrants can be denied access to basic social services. The Gun Free School Zones Act exceeded congresss authority to regulate commerce among the states. The Gun Free School Zones Act was constitutional.

37) Federalism is a) The same as unitary government. b) Sole government authority in the states. c) Sole government authority in the national government. d) A system of shared power by the state and national governments. e) A three-branch government with a system of checks and balances. 38) Federalism is a) Unique to the U.S. b) Practiced by fewer than 20 nations worldwide. c) Practiced by about half the nations worldwide. d) Practiced by nearly all of the 190 nations worldwide. e) Practiced in about half the American states. 39) A form of government structure in witch the national government is weak and most or all power is in the hands of its components (e.g., states) is known as a) Federalism. b) A unitary government. c) Parliamentary. d) A confederation. e) Statist. 40) The workings of the federal system are sometimes called a) International relations. b) Intergovernmental relations. c) Internal relations. d) Interstate relations. e) Intrastate relations. 41) Which of the following is NOT true? a) Most federal systems are democracies. b) Only some democracies use federal systems. c) Authoritarian regimes generally do not use federalist systems. d) No unitary governments are democratic. e) Few countries have federal systems. 42) Most of the governments in the world today are ____, in which all power resides in the central national government. a) Federalist. b) Confederations.

c) Fiscal. d) Unitary. e) Nationalist. 43) A unitary system is a way of organizing government so that a) Both national and state levels of government have authority over the same land and people. b) Power is concentrated in a central government. c) Power is concentrated in state and local governments. d) National and state governments have separate powers over different areas and people. e) Every single government is independent of the others and possesses its own specialized power and authority. 44) Federalism is a way of organizing a nation so that a) Both nation and state levels of government have authority over the same land and people. b) Power is centralized in the national government. c) Power is centralized in state and local government. d) There are three branches of government and a system of checks and balances. e) There is one federal government and all regional governments are administrative subunits of it. 45) Which one of the following countries has federalism as its method of governing? a) Canada. b) France. c) China. d) Kenya. e) No other country uses federalism. 49) Which of the following is NOT an effect of federalism? a) It simplifies the governmental system b) It decentralizes the political power c) It increases more access points to government d) Courts are called upon to be referees, and they gain power e) All of these are characteristics of a federal system 50) The power to directly regulate drinking ages, marriage and divorce, and sexual behavior and the like has been granted a) to state governments b) to the national government c) to both the state and national governments d) to all governments by the Bill of Rights

e) to the President

51) States are responsible for most public policies dealing with each of the following issues except a) social issues b) economic issues c) family issues d) moral issues e) police powers 52) Laws that directly regulate abortion, drinking ages, marriage and divorce, or sexual behavior are policy prerogatives that belong to a) the states b) Congress c) local governments d) the bureaucracy e) federal courts 53) Which of these is NOT among the factors that tend to lead to the creation of a federal form of government in a country? a) industrialization b) large land area c) large population d) diverse population e) the existence of multiple religions 54) In our federal system, the powers of the state governments are ultimately granted by a) the U.S. Constitution b) the U.S. government c) theirs states Supreme Court d) their state legislature e) the people of their state 55) As the framers wrote the Constitution, they had no practical choice but to adopt a federal system for all but which of the following reasons? a) America had always had a federal system and it would have been too radical and disruptive a change to adopt another system b) Americans loyalty to state governments was stronger than it was to the United States c) The population was too dispersed for a unitary system to work d) The countrys transportation and communication systems were too primitive for a unitary government to work e) The confederation had clearly failed in managing the countrys problems

56) From clean-air legislation to welfare reforms, the states constitute a ________ to develop and test public policies and share the results with other states and the national government a) major roadblock b) neglected resource c) national laboratory d) severe reluctance e) last chance 57) Almost every policy the national government has adopted has originated with a) the President b) the states c) the Supreme Court d) the Senate e) the House of Representatives 59) The supremacy clause of the Constitution states that all of the following are the supreme law of the land, EXCEPT a) state constitutions b) the U.S. Constitution c) laws of the national government (when consistent with the Constitution) d) treaties of the national government (when consistent with the Constitution) e) C and D 60) The Constitutions supremacy clause A) does not apply to state and local matters. B) is vague about which level of government should prevail in a dispute involving federalism. C) gives the states superiority over the national governments Constitution and laws. D) made the Constitution, the laws of the national government, and the national Governments treaties the supreme law of the land. E) makes the President supreme in any constitutional conflicts with the other two branches. Answer: D 61) The efforts of Candy Lightner and Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) to raise the legal drinking age to 21 are an example of A) the constitutional authority of the national government to impose policies on state governments. B) states acting as policy innovators.

C) the ability of the national government to influence state policy. D) the supremacy of state governments to regulate its own affairs. E) the unconstitutionality of age discrimination. 62) The primary thrust of the original intent and wording of the Tenth Amendment is that A) States have certain powers that the national government cannot encroach upon. B) national laws override state laws when there is a conflict between the two. C) the national government can take control of a state government during a national emergency. D) state legislatures have the ultimate authority to determine what a stage governments powers are. E) both the states and national government are bound by limitations in the Bill of Rights. 63) In the Constitution, the powers to coin money, to enter into treaties, and to regulate commerce with foreign nations and among the states were given to A) the individual states. B) the national government. C) both the individual states and the national government. D) neither the individual states nor the national government. E) the Senate only. 64) What was the main criticism of the national bank created by the U.S. government? A) It was an instrument of the elite and gave the national government too much control of the economy. B) It was printing too much worthless paper money which debtors were using to Pay off their debts with. C) It was borrowing too much money, putting the U.S. government hopelessly in debt. D) It was charging exorbitant interest rates on its loans. 65) The principle that the national government has certain implied powers that go beyond its enumerated powers was first elaborated in the Supreme Courts decision in ____. A) Marbury v. Madison B) McCulloch v. Maryland C) Gibbons v. Ogden D) Miranda v. Arizona E) United States v. the States 66) The enumerated powers of Congress and the national government are those A) involving taxes, spending, and fiscal policy. B) requiring ratification by the states. C) specifically spelled out in the Constitution. D) not specifically spelled out in the Constitution, but nonetheless acknowledged. E) set out in the first ten amendments.

67) Federal policies to regulate food and drugs, build interstate highways, protect consumers, try to clean up dirty air and water, and do many other things are all justified as ____ of Congress. A) categorical grants B) constitutionally specified powers C) enumerated powers D) implied powers E) reserved powers 68) The Constitutions provision that Congress has the right to make all laws necessary and proper for carrying into execution its powers is often referred to as the A) enumerated powers. B) elastic clause. C) privileges and immunities. D) heart of fiscal federalism E) Unwritten Amendment 69) In determining the power of Congress to regulate commerce in the case of Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court A) listed the enumerated powers of Congress and the national government. B) listed the implied powers of Congress and the national government. C) defined commerce very broadly, encompassing virtually every form of commercial activity. D) defined commerce very narrowly in considering the right of Congress to regulate it. E) prohibited Congress from regulating business activity on the grounds it violated private property rights. 70) In the decision to what Supreme Court case did the majority of the justices rule that states can pass legislation that deals with health, safety, morals, and the public welfare. a) Marbury v. Madison b) McCulloch v. Maryland c) Schechter Poultry v. US d) Schenck v. US e) Muller v. Oregon 74) In the 1950s and 1960s, the proclamation of states rights was usually made by those opposing the national governments efforts in the area of A) civil rights for African-Americans. B) abortion rights C) the Vietnam War D) the interstate highway system

75) The fact that a drivers license from one state is valid in another state is an example of A) privileges and immunities B) full faith and credit C) extradition D) implied powers E) unmandated reciprocity 76) The national government has exclusive control over foreign and military policy, the postal system, and monetary policy, while the states have exclusive control over other specific areas. This division of responsibilities reflects A) fiscal federalism B) cooperative federalism C) dual federalism D) tripartite federalism E) divided federalism 77) Over time, there has been a gradual change from a dual federalism to a _____ Federalism A) Fiscal B) Cooperative C) Single D) Tripartite E) Unitary 78) Extradition is the requirement that states A) recognize each others public acts, records, and civil judicial proceedings. B) cannot discriminate against citizens of other states. C) must return a person charged with a crime in another state to that state for trial or imprisonment. D) provide sanctuary for federal criminals. E) enforce federal law within their state. 80) In cooperative federalism, A) states and the national government each remain supreme within their own spheres. B) powers and policy assignments of the layers of government are distinct. C) responsibilities are mingled and distinctions are blurred between the levels of government. D) states are supreme over the national government. E) A and B. 81) Funding for the interstate highway system is an example of A) a unitary system of government.

B) cooperative federalism. C) dual federalism. D) tripartite federalism. E) national federalism. 82) The National Defense Education Act, the Elementary and Secondary Education Act, and the Interstate Highway System are all examples of A) layer cake federalism. B) dual federalism. C) cooperative federalism. D) unitary federalism. E) triangulation. 83) In cooperative federalism, in order to qualify for federal grant money, cities and states must A) match federal funding dollar for dollar. B) follow federal guidelines for adopting and enforcing federal laws. C) allow federal agencies to administer the funds. D) propose standard operating procedures. E) all of these. 84) Which of these was not a principle established in the case of McCulloch vs. Maryland? A) State laws preempt national laws when the national government clearly exceeds its constitutional powers and intrudes upon state powers. B) The national government has certain implied powers that go beyond its enumerated powers. C) The national government is supreme to the states when it is acting within its sphere of action. D) The national government can establish a national bank, even though the Constitution does not say it can. E) State governments are forbidden spending more money than they raise each year, which there is no such requirement on the national government. 85) About ______ of the funds state and local governments spend comes from the federal government. A) 20% B) 33% C)50% D) 75% E) 90% 86) The main instrument of the national government uses to influence state governments is A) grants-in-aid B) Presidential Decrees C) mandates D) The Tenth Amendment E) Judicial Review 87) Fiscal federalism is A) The pattern of spending, taxing, and providing grants in the federal system. B) the distinct separation of national government spending versus state and local government spending.

C) The federal income tax. D) as sharing of local and national resources practiced in other countries but not in the United States. E) the federal governments regulation of the money supply and interest rates. 88) The principle type of federal aid for states and localities is A) block grants. B) categorical grants. C) revenue sharing. D) disaster loans. E) urban renewal grants. 89) The requirement of a drinking age provision before states can receive federal highway aid is an example of A) a project grant supported by the interest groups. B) a string attached to categorical grants. C) the efforts of state agencies to get federal funds. D) an important element of the formula used to calculate formula grants. E) an un mandate 90) The most common type of categorical grant is A) revenue sharing. B) block grants. C) project grants. D) disaster relief. E) a rescission fund. 91) Programs such as Medicaid and Aid for Families with Dependent Children, where applicants automatically qualify for aid if they meet the requirements, are examples of A. dual federalism B. block grants C. project grants D. formula grants E. welfare. 92. The fact that the new Republican majority in Congress prefers block grants to categorical grants indicates that A. they want the federal government to exercise less authority over the states. B. they to increase federal aid to state governments. C. the want to decrease federal aid to state government. D. they intend to raise more money from state governments to reduce the federal budget deficit. E. they want federal money to be spent at the neighborhood level rather than the state level.

93. In response to complaints from state and local governments about the paperwork and requirements attached to most grants, Congress has established ___________ to spurt programs in areas like community development and social services. A. block grants B. categorical grants C. formula grants D. project grants E. computerized grant applications 95. On the whole, federal grant distribution follows the principle of A. universalism. B. needs-testing. C. stinginess. D. to the victors go the spoils. E. cronyism. 96. Expansions of mandated programs by the national government present especially difficult funding problems for A. foreign governments, B. the recipient of the service or program. C. Congress D. state and local government. E. Federal taxpayers 97. The new Republican majority in Congress, in contrast to previous Democratic Congresses, has (This does NOT include the Bush presidency who required the states to make educational changes as part of his No Child Left Behind legislation without providing any money) A. limited the use of unfunded mandates. B. limited the use of block grants. C. avoided funded mandates. D. prohibited the stats from using unfunded mandates. E. All of these. 98) Medicaid is an example of A) a federal block grant B) a federal grant program that receives little support from the political parties C) a federal grant program that puts an economic strain on the states D) a federal grant program that produces considerable competition between the states. E) all of these

99) A number of states have sued the federal government for reimbursement of funds on the grounds that A) The federal government isnt preventing illegal immigration into their states B) Overcrowded prisons are a form of cruel and unusual punishment. C) It has no right to charter a national bank D) The Federal Reserve board has pushed interest rates too high, increasing state borrowing costs E) Trick question! States cannot sue the federal government 100) Spending on public education illustrates A) The diversity in the quality of education among states as a result of federalism B) The advantages of fiscal federalism C) Cooperation between states and federal government for unified policy D) Advantages of relying on states to supply public services E) The national curriculum that exists in the United States 101) Over the last 125 years the people of the United States have turned increasingly to the national government to solve problems or provide assistance because A) Of a corruption at the state level B) A problem or policy often requires the authority and resources of the national government C) The tenth amendment gave increased power to the national government D) We have a unitary government E) Of the lessons of the Civil War 102) Which of the following statements is false? A) The national government has increasingly involved itself in the economic marketplace B) The national government took a direct interest in economic affairs form the very founding of the republic C) As the country became more industrialized and urbanized, economic interest groups turned to the state governments rather than the federal government D) As the country became more industrialized and urbanized, economic interest groups turned to the state governments rather than the federal government for help E) The federal government has given billions of dollars in subsidies to private industries 103) Today roughly ____ of the gross domestic product is spent by state and local governments A 2.5% B 15% C 9% D 25% E 5%

104) Today, the national government spends roughly _____ of the gross domestic product. A) 2.5% B) 9% C) 20% D) 44% E) 15% 105) Federalism is advantageous for democracy for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) it allows more opportunity for political participation B) it increases access to the government C) it allows for a greater diversity of opinion to be reflected in public policy D) it increases the number of decisions and compromises made at the national level E) it allows customization of policies for local needs

Some other questions from Chapter 2: 114) The foundation of John Lockes philosophy was that human beings A) Derive their rights from nature B) Determine their own rights C) Derive their rights from God D) Have rights that are granted to them by the government E) Are granted their rights by their King 115) Which of these were NOT among John Lockes key philosophy A) Checks and balances B) Natural rights C) Limited government D) Consent of the governed E) Property rights 116) Johns Lockes ideas on natural rights were related to human law in that A) Natural rights were considered higher than human law B) Natural rights were less important than human law C) Human law and natural rights were unimportant after revolution D) Human law protected property rights, making human law equal to natural rights E) Human law was the source of natural rights 117) John Locke believed in each of the following EXCEPT! A) Natural rights B) Consent of the governed C) Divine rights of Kings

D) Limited government E) C and D Answer Key: 1) D 6) A 15) A 16) C 30) A 31) A 39) D 40) B 54) A 55) A 67) D 68) B 83) B 84) E 96) D 97) A 104) C 4) B 3) A 17) B 18) A 22) C 28) E 41) A 42) D 56) C 57) B 69) C 70) E 85) A 86) A 98) C 99) A 105) D 5) C 2) A 19) A 20) A 29) C 32) B 43) B 44) A 59) A 60) D 74) A 75) B 87) A 88) B 100) A 114) A 7) A 8) A 21) B 27) A 33) A 34) C 45) A 49) A 61) C 62) A 76) C 77) B 89) B 90) C 101) B 115) A 9) B 10) A 23) C 26) B 35) D 36) C 50) A 51) B 63) C 64) A 78) C 80) C 91) D 92) A 102) D 116) A 11) A 13) A 24) B 25) C 37) D 38) B 52) A 53) A 65) B 66) C 81) B 82) C 93) A 95) A 103) C 117) C