IIT STS9 Questions Solutions

BRILLIANT S
FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IX/PCM/P(I)/QNS
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. ............................................... Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate. ............................................... Signature of the Invigilator
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.
IIT/STS IX/PCM/P(I)/Qns - 1
SEAL
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
SEAL
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A charge +Q is uniformly distributed over a thin ring with radius R. A negative point charge Q and mass m starts from rest at a point far away from the centre of the ring and moves towards centre. The velocity of this charge at the moment it passes through the centre of the ring is [L = 2 0] (A) QL m (B) Q mRL (C) Q
2
mRL
(D)
mRL Q
2
2. A cylindrical tank of height 0.4 m is open at the top and has a diameter 0.16 m. Water is filled upto a height 0.16 m. Calculate how long will it take to empty the tank through a hole of radius 5 10 (A) 46.24 s (B) 23.12 s
3
m in its bottom. (D) 50 s
(C) 38.2 s
3. A magnetic flux through a stationary loop of resistance R varies during the interval as = at ( t). Find the amount of heat generated during this time. Neglect the inductance of loop. (A) a 3R
2 3
(B) a 3R
(C) a 3R
2
2 2
(D) a 3R
2 4
4. The time taken for a disturbance to pass along a string of length l and linear density m gm/cm. If the tension is ml gm/wt will be (A) g (B) 1 g (C) 1 2 g (D) g 2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
5. A uniform thin bar of mass 6 m and length 6l is bent to make an equilateral hexagon. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane of hexagon is (A) 5 ml
2
(B) 6 ml
(C) 4 ml
(D)
ml
12
6. Three interacting particles of masses 100 g, 200 g and 400 g have each a velocity of 20 m/s magnitude along the positive direction of x-axis, y-axis and z-axis. Due to force of interaction the third particle stops moving. The velocity of the second particle is 10 j (A) 20 i (C) 30 i 20 j 10 j 5k . What is the velocity of the first particle? 70k 7k (B) 10 i (D) 15 i 20 j 5j 8k 60k 1
7. A string is under tension so that its length is increased by
of its original n length. The ratio of fundamental frequency of longitudinal vibration and the fundamental frequency of transverse vibration will be (A) n (B) n (C) (n)
3/2
(D) n 3
8. Two thin concentric wires shaped as circles with radii a and b lie in the same plane. If a << b, their mutual inductance will be (A) 0 ab = M
2 2
(B)
a
0
2b a
=M
2 2
(C) 0 a b = M
(D)
0
=M
9. Light quanta with energy 4.9 eV eject photoelectrons from a metal with work function 4.5 eV. The maximum impulse transmitted to the surface of the metal when each electron flies out will be (A) 9.1 10
25
kg m/sec kg m/sec
(B) 4 10
25
kg m/sec kg m/sec
(C) 3.45 10
25
(D) 4.9 10
25
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The wavelength of light is very small. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Metals contain large number of free electrons. The light appears to travel in a straight line in spite of its wave nature. Metals are good conductors of heat.
12. Statement 1:
If oil of density higher than that of water is used in place of water in a resonance column experiment the frequency will change.
because Statement 2: 13. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The potential of a metal sphere of radius r is given by 1 q 1 = 9 109 Nm2 C2 V= , where 4 r 4
0 0
The frequency produced in resonance column experiment is independent of the liquid used. A metal sphere of radius 1 cm can hold a charge of one coulomb.
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 Lithium has a work function of 2.3 eV. It is exposed to light of wavelength 4.8 10
7
m and photoelectrons are emitted.
14. What is the maximum kinetic energy with which the electrons leave the photoelectric surface? (A) Emax = 0.14 eV (C) Emax = 0.42 eV (B) Emax = 0.28 eV (D) Emax = 0.56 eV SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
15. What is the longest wavelength that could release a photoelectron from the lithium surface? (A) = 5.38 10
7 7
m m
(B) = 6.25 10
7 7
m m
(C) = 5.76 10
(D) = 6.92 10
16. Keeping the wavelength of the incident light the same if the intensity of light is doubled, what will be the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons? (A) 0.28 eV (B) 0.56 eV (C) 0.14 eV (D) 0.42 eV Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 A simple harmonic wave is represented by the equation y = 10 sin time period of the wave is 30 s and at t = 0 the displacement is 5 cm. 17. What is the phase angle at t = 7.5 s? (A) 120 (A) 36 (B) 90 (B) 72 (C) 150 (C) 108 (D) 60 (D) 45 2 ? 18. What is the phase difference between two position at time interval of 6 seconds? 2 t T . The
19. After what time from the start, the phase difference will be (A) 7.5 s (B) 5.5 s (C) 6.5 s SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type (D) 8 s
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 20. p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) 2 3 :1
Column I (A) For angles of projections which exceed or fall short of 45 by equal amounts, the ratio of the ranges will be (B) A particle I is projected with a speed V from a point O making an angle of 30 with vertical. At the same time a second particle II is thrown vertically upwards from the point A with velocity v . The two particles reach H the highest point on the parabolic path of the first particle simultaneously. The ratio of V/v will be
(q) 1 : 1
(C) A stone thrown at an angle of 45 to the horizontal. The ratio of the maximum height reached to the horizontal range will be (D) From the top of a tower of height 40 m a ball is projected upwards with a speed of 20 m/s at an angle of elevation 30. The ratio of total time taken by the ball to hit the ground to its time of flight (time taken to come back to same elevation) will be 21. Column I (A) A bullet travelling with a velocity 3 m/s pierces a plank of certain thickness and comes to stop. What should be the velocity of bullet to be stopped by triple the thickness of the same plank? (B) A railway truck of mass 2 10 kg travelling at 0.5 m/s collides with another of half its mass moving in opposite direction with a velocity of 0.4 m/s. If the trucks couple automatically on collisions, then common velocity after collision will be (C) A ship of mass 3 10 kg initially at rest is pulled by a force of 5 10 through a distance of 3 m. Assuming the resistance due to water is negligible, find the speed of ship. (D) A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces M two of which of mass each are thrown off in 4 perpendicular directions with velocities of 3 m/s and 4 m/s respectively. The third piece will be thrown off with a velocity of SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
4 7 4
(r) 2 : 1
(s) 1 : 4
Column II (p) 2.5 m/s
(q) 0.1 m/s
(r) 0.2 m/s
(s) 3 m/s
22.
Column I (A) An object initially at rest moves along the x-axis subjected to an acceleration which varies with time according to relation, a = 2t + 5. Its velocity in m/s after 2 s will be (B) A particle moves along the x-axis in such a way that its coordinate (x) varies with time t according to the expression, x = 2 5t + 6t . The initial speed of the particle will be (C) The velocity time relation of an electron starting from rest is given by v = Kt, where K = 2 m/s . The distance in metres travelled in 3 seconds will be (D) The velocity of the particle at an instant is 10 m/s. After 5 s, the velocity of the particle is 20 m/s. The velocity in m/s, 3 seconds before will be
2 2
Column II (p) 5
(q) 14
(r) 4
(s) 9
10
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. The percentage of selenium in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight. (Atomic weight of Se is 78.4). The minimum molecular weight of the enzyme is (A) 1.568 10 g mol
2 4 1 1
(B) 1.568 10 g mol

4
1 1
(C) 1.568 10 g mol
(D) 3.136 10 g mol
24. The velocity of electron in the third orbit of H-atom is v cm / s. What is the velocity of electron in its fifth orbit? (A) v (B) 5v (C) 3v 5 (D) 5v 3
25. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 30 minutes. One sixteenth of original quantity of the element will remain unchanged after (A) 60 minutes (C) 240 minutes (B) 120 minutes (D) 180 minutes
26. Which one of the following will have a tetrahedral structure? (A) MnO
4
(B) PO
+
3 4
(C) SO
2 4
(D) All the above
27. Excess of Na ions in human system causes (A) diabetes (C) low blood pressure (B) anaemia (D) high blood pressure
11
28. The decreasing order of stability of the following compounds is (A) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl (C) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl compound is (A) SiH
4
(B) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl (D) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl
4 4 4 4
29. Among the following compounds, CH , SiH , GeH and SnH , the most volatile (B) CH (C) SnH (D) GeH
30. Give the product of the reaction:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D) 31. Consider the sequence of reactions
D is (A) phenyl isocyanate (C) an amide (B) primary amine (D) chain lengthened hydrocarbon SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
12
SECTION II Assertion - Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: At inversion temperature of a gas, the Joule-Thomson co-efficient is zero. because Statement 2: At inversion temperature, a real gas obeys Boyle s law at a wide range of pressure. 33. Statement 1: Doping of silicon with arsenic produces n-type semiconductance. because Statement 2: Electrical conductance of a semiconductor increases with rise in temperature. 34. Statement 1: Magnesium is more malleable and ductile than sodium. because Statement 2: First ionisation potential of sodium is higher than that of magnesium. 35. Statement 1: Yield of first oxidation product of primary alcohol with acidified K2Cr2O7 is lesser than that of secondary alcohol. because Statement 2: Primary alcohol is more easily oxidised than a secondary alcohol. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
13
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Some chemical reactions proceed very very slowly. There are some reactions which proceed instantaneously to completion. Such reactions are very fast reactions. In between these two extremes, there are chemical reactions which are neither too fast nor too slow. Such reactions can be kinetically studied by measuring either the rate of disappearance of any one of the reactants or the rate of appearance of any one of the products. The rate equation can be written as dc dt where dc = kc
n
represents the rate of disappearance of the reactant, c is the dt concentration of the reactant and n is called order of the reaction. k is called rate constant and it is related to energy of activation of the reaction. k is also temperature dependent. k = Ae
E RT
a
or E
a
log k = log A
2.303RT
36. The reaction, 2A + B D + E has been shown to follow the mechanism A + B C + D (slow step) A + C E (fast step) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
14
The rate equation for the reaction is (A) (C) dx dt dx dt = k[A] [B] = k[A][C]
2
(B) (D)
dx dt dx dt
= k[A][B] = k[A] [B][C]

2
37. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction. Experiment 1 2 3 4 (A) Rate = k[B]
3 3
[A]
[B]
Initial rate 0.10 Ms 0.80 Ms 0.10 Ms 0.80 Ms

1
0.012 M 0.024 M 0.024 M 0.012 M
0.035 M 0.075 M 0.035 M 0.070 M (B) Rate = k[B]

4 2 2
(C) Rate = k[A][B]
(D) Rate = k[A] [B]
38. The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) + D(g) is an elementary process. In an experiment,
the initial partial pressures of A and B are 0.60 atm and 0.80 atm respectively. When partial pressure of C is 0.20 atm, the rate of the reaction relative to initial rate is (A) 1 4 (B) 1 6 (C) 1 24 (D) 1 48
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Strictly speaking, the binary compounds of hydrogen with other elements whose electronegativity is lower than that of hydrogen are called hydrides. On the basis of SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
15
the type of bonding in the hydrides, these are classified into ionic or salt like hydrides, covalent or molecular hydrides, metallic or interstitial hydrides and complex hydrides. 39. Which of the following is an ionic hydride? (A) LiH (B) NH
3
(C) CuH
(D) LiAlH
40. The correct order of stability of the hydrides is (A) CH < NH < HF < H O
4 3 2
(B) CH < NH < H O < HF

4 3 2
(C) H O < HF < CH < NH 2 4 3
(D) CH4 < HF < NH3 < H2O
41. Which of the following reacts with liquid NH3 forming hydrogen? (A) CaH2 (B) H2S (C) PH3 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s (D) NiH2
16
42. (A) (B)
Column I
Column II (p) C H CH OH
6 5 2
(q) C6H5COOH (r)
(C)
(D)
(s)
43.
Column I (A) [Mn(CN)6] (B) [MnCl4]

2 2 3
Column II (p) diamagnetic (q) paramagnetic (r) d sp (s) sp

3 2 3
(C) [Ni(CN)4] (D) [NiCl4] 44. (A) (B) (C) (D)

2
Column I
Column II (p) Equilibrium is not affected by pressure change. (q) Forward reaction is favoured at high pressure. (r) Forward reaction is favoured at low pressure. (s) Kp < Kc . SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
17
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. The equation 4
sec
2
2x
1 2
= 0 have real roots, a possible
value of cos + cos (A) 1 3 6
is 3 (C) 1 6 (D) 1 6
(B)
1 2
46. If a, b, c are three unit vectors such that a b = a c = 0 and angle between b and c is (A) 1 , then the absolute value of a b c is (B) 0 (C) 1 2
2
(D)
1 3
2
47. If sin A = x, cos B = y, A + B + C = 0, then x + 2xy sin C + y is equal to (A) sin C

1 0
1
(B) cos C
2
(C) 1 + sin C
(D) 1 + cos C
48. If
tan x
dx = , then 2
siny y
0
dy is
(A)
(B)
(C) 2
(D) 3
18
49. If 2
2x
64
2 (B) 1
72
2x
0, then a possible value of x can be (D) 6
(A) 0
(C) 2
50. If |z + 8i| = 5, then the greatest and least values of |z + 6| is (A) 10, 5 (B) 15, 10 (C) 12, 10 (D) 15, 5 x
2
51. The tangent at a point whose eccentric angle 60 on the ellipse
2 2
a b auxiliary circle at L and M. If LM subtends a right angle at the centre, then eccentricity of the ellipse is (A) 1 7 (B) 2 7 (C) 3 7 (D) 1 2
= 1 meet the
52. If f(x) be twice differentiable function such that f(1) = 0, f(4) = 2, f(5) = 1, f(6) = 2, f(7) = 0, then the minimum number of zeros of g(x) = [f(x)] + f (x) f(x) in (1, 7) is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5
2 2
(D) 6
53. The equation to the common tangent to the curve y = 8x and xy = 1 is (A) y = x + 2 (B) y = 2x + 1 (C) 2y = x + 8 SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (D) 3y = 9x + 2
19
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: The number of roots of the equation x because Statement 2: In log N, base b > 0 and b 1.
b
log
x
= 25 is two.
55. Statement 1: If a and b are any two numbers real or complex, then
a
C0
(a + b)
C1 +
(a + 2b)
C2 ... + (n + 1) terms is zero.
because Statement 2:
n
Cr = Cn r x 11 x x dx is 3 2 .
56. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
f
a
x dx =
f
a
x dx.
20
57. Statement 1: If lim

x 0
ax
= e , where a + b = 6, then ordered pair (a, b)
is (4, 2). because Statement 2: If Lt

x a g x
f x = 1 and
Lt
Lt
x a f x
g x = , then
1 g x
Lt
x a
f x
= e
x a
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 I. logb x logb y x y if b > 1 and x y if 0 < b < 1 II. (1) If b > 1, 0 < x < y logb x < logb y (2) If 0 < b < 1, then 0 < x < y logb x > logb y III. (1) If x > 1 and b > 1 logb x > 0 (2) If 0 < x < 1, 0 < b < 1 logb x > 0 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
21
(3) If x > 1, 0 < b < 1 log x < 0

b
(4) If 0 < x < 1 and b > 1 logb x < 0 58. If log0.2 (x 2) < log0.04 (x 2), then x belongs to the interval (A) (3, ) (B) (1, 3) (C) ( 3, 1) (D) (1, 2)
59. If 1 + log2 sin x + log2 sin 3x > 0, 0 x 2, then x lies in (A) 0, 6 x

2
(B)
(C) 0,
12
(D)
12
60. If log
1 4
6x
14 < 2 log
1 4
8 , then
(A) x < 2
(B) x < 1
(C) x (2, 3)
(D) x > 8
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 If two circles are non-intersecting, there are four common tangents, two direct and two transverse. If two circles touch externally, the number of common tangents is 3. If two circles are intersecting, the number of common tangents is 2. If two circles touch internally, the number of common tangent is 1. If one circle lies completely inside another circle, there will be no common tangent. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
22
61. The equation of common tangent of the circles x + y = 4 and x + y 6x 8y = 24 is (A) 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 (C) 4x + 3y + 10 = 0
2 2
(B) 3x + 4y + 10 = 0 (D) 4x + 3y + 5 = 0
2 2
62. The number of common tangents to the circles x + y 2x 6y + 9 = 0 and x + y + 6x 2y + 1 = 0 is (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 1
2 2
(D) 0
2 2
63. The number of common tangents to x + y = 16 and x + y 2y = 0 is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s (D) 3
23
64. The circle x + y = 9 and rectangular hyperbola xy = 4 meet at (xr, yr) where r = 1, 2, 3, 4. Then Column I (A) x + x + x + x
1 2 3 4
Column II is (p) 9 (q) 0 1 x

4
(B) y y y y (C) 1 x
1
1 2 3 4
is 1 x
3
1 x
2
is
(r) 1
(D) y1 y2 is 65.
2
(s) 16 Column I Column II (p) (0, 4] {1, 2, 3} (q) (3, 4)
(A) If x 7x + 12 < 0, then x belongs to (B) If y = cos

1
2 x 7
+ log |x 2| x, then
domain of y is (C) If f(x) = sec

2
1
1 3
, then its domain is
(r) ( , 2) [4, )
(D) If [x] [x] 6 > 0, then x belongs to (where [] is the greatest integer function)
(s) ( , 4] [4, )
24
66. (A)
Column I
Column II (p) log (1 + x) + tan

1
dx 1 x 1 x x
3 2
2 32
is equal to
x+C
(B)
x x
2
2 1 x
dx is equal to
(q) x log x +
1 2
log (x + 1) tan
x+C
(C)
1 x x x
dx is equal to
2
(r) log x + 2 tan
x+C
(D)
1 x
dx is equal to
(s) 1
x x
2
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IX/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS BRILLIANT S HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I 1. (C) Potential energy when it is far away from centre = When it passes through centre, kinetic energy =
2 2 1 Q 1 Q mv = , v = 2 R 4 2 mR 0 0 2 2
R mv
1 4
0
1 2
v =
2 mR
0
2. (A) Let the water be filled in the tank upto height h . Velocity of efflux = 2gh Rate of descent of water = R
2
dh dt
2 2
dh dt
= r v = r
2gh
IIT/STS IX/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1
dh h dh h
0.16
2 2
0.005 2g dt = 0.08
2 9.8 dt
= 0.0173 dt
Integrating,
dh h
0.0173 dt
2(0.16)1/2 = 0.0173t t= 2 0.4 0.0173 s = 46.24 s

2
3. (A) Magnetic flux, = at ( t) = at at E= d dt = d at dt at

2
= a
2at
Heat generated will be given as dH = i2Rdt E = iR or i = E R dH =

2 2 2
E R R dt
dH =
E R
dt
Total heat developed =
dH =
2t
2
E dt R
3
H=
a R
i
0
dt =
i R
4t 3
2t
0
i 2 3 a 3 R a
2 3
=
3R
4. (B) Velocity,
T m
ml g m
=l g
Time taken = l = l = 1 v l g g 5. (A) I = 6 ml

2
3 4
12
ml
= 5 ml
6. (A) Initial momentum = m11 + m22 + m33 = 2 i 4 j 8k When the third particle stops the final momentum = m1v1 + m2v2 + m3v3 = 0.1v1 + 0.2 10 j 0.1v1 + 2 j v = 20 i
1
5k 4j
0 8k
By principle of conservation of momentum, k =2i 20 j 70k
7. (B) Let l be the length of string. When under tension its length = l + Increase in length = Strain = l n 1 1 = l n Stress Strain = TA 1n = nT A 1 2l 1 2l 1 2l Y nT A T A l n l n
Young s modulus, Y =
Fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibration = = Fundamental frequency of transverse wave = 1 2l T m =
Ratio of fundamental frequencies of longitudinal wave and transverse wave =

1 2l
nT A
1 2l
T A
= n
8. (B) Magnetic induction due to outer wire = i

0 2
i
0
2b
Flux linked with inner wire = di dt a

0 2
2b
a = M i
M a
0 2
2b
di dt
M= 9. (C)
2b
0
2 1 mv = h max 2
h = 4.9 eV, 0 = 4.5 eV E= 1 2 mv

2 max
= 4.9
4.5 = 0.4 eV
Momentum, mv = 2Em Change of momentum is impulse = mv 0 = 2Em = 2 0.4 1.6 10 = 3.45 10 SECTION II 10. (A) 11. (A) Light is a form of wave motion. Rectilinear propagation of light is consistent with wave nature as the wavelength is small. 12. (D) The frequency depends only on the length of air column. 13. (A) SECTION III 14. (B) Kinetic energy = h 0 h = hc = 6.6 10 4.8 10
7 34 8 19 25 19 31
9.1 10
kgm/s
3 10
eV = 2.58 eV
1.6 10
kinetic energy = 2.58 2.3 = 0.28 eV 15. (A) The longest wavelength that could release the electron is given by h =
0
hc
0
= 2.3
6.6 10
0
34
3 10
19
= 2.3
1.6 10
7
0 = 5.38 10
16. (A) The maximum kinetic energy is independent of the incident light and it depends only on the frequency of the incident light. So in this case since the frequency and hence the wavelength is 4.8 10 energy remains the same as 0.28 eV. 17. (A) At t = 0, y = 5 cm 5 = 10 sin (0 + ) = 10 sin sin = 5 1 = 10 2 6 2 t T 6 = 2 3 rad = 120
7
m, the maximum kinetic
= 30 =
At t = 7.5 s, the phase angle is given by = 18. (B) Phase difference at a time interval of 6 s, = 2 t T = 2 6 30 = 2 5 rad = 72
19. (A) Phase difference at a time of interval of t seconds is given by = = 2 2 = 2 t T
2 t T
t=
30 = 7.5 s 4
SECTION IV 20. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) Range of a projectile = 2u sin 45
2
cos 45 g
where is the angle exceeding 45 Range of a projectile = 2u sin 45

2
cos 45 g
if is the angle by which it is smaller than 45 Ratio of the two ranges =

2u sin 45 2u sin 45
2
cos 45 cos 45
=1
(B) Maximum height reached by projectile = Time = V sin 60 g
V sin 60 2g
... (1)
Height reached by second particle in this time

2
= v
V sin 60 g
1 g 2 V v =
V sin 60 g 2 3 :1
... (2)
Equating (1) and (2) and solving, we get (C) Maximum height reached =
2
u sin 45 2g
Horizontal range = 2u sin 45 cos 45 g Ratio = 1 : 4 (D) Vertical velocity component = 20 sin 30 = 10 m/s Time taken by ball to reach the ground is calculated using 40 = 10t 1 2 10 t2
40 = 10t 5t2 8 = 2t t
2
t2 2t 8 = 0 t= 2 4 2 32 =4s 2u sin g = 2 20 sin 30 10 =2s
Time of flight of projectile = Ratio = 2 : 1
21. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) F t = 1 2 mv
2
and F 3t =
1 2
mx
x2 = 3v2 x =33=9 x = 3 m/s

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS IX/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 6
2
(B) If V is the common velocity, final momentum after collision = 3 10 V = 0.2 m/s (C) Change in kinetic energy = Work done 1 2 3 10 v = 5 10 3 v = 0.1 m/s (D) Applying the principle of conservation of momentum, The resultant momentum of the two pieces should be equal and opposite to M momentum of third piece 2 M 2 v = 9 16 M
2 7 2 4
This should be equal to the total momentum before collision and solve for V.
v=
5 = 2.5 m/s 2
22. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) d x dt dx dt
2 2
= 2t 2t 2
2
5t dx = velocity = 14 m/s dt
2
When t = 2,
(B) x = 2 5t + 6t Velocity,
dx = 5 + 12t dt
2
when t = 0, velocity = 5, speed = 5 (C) v = Kt. Hence acceleration, K = 2 m/s Distance travelled in 3 s = (D) Acceleration is 2 m/s
2
1 29=9m 2
Velocity, 3 s before = 4 m/s

PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I 23. (A) 0.5 g of Se is present in 100 g of the enzyme. 78.4 g of Se is present in 78.4 100 4 = 1.568 10 g of the enzyme 0.5
4 1
Hence, the minimum molecular weight of the enzyme = 1.568 10 g mol
24. (C) If v1 is the velocity of electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom, then the velocity of electron in the third orbit is, v
1
3 v
1
= v (given). v
Velocity of electron in the fifth orbit is,

n
3 5
3 5
25. (B) Nt = N
1
0
2
n
[n = no. of half-lives]
16 1 2
= N
4
1
0
2
n
1 2
Hence, n = 4 half-lives = 4 30 = 120 minutes 26. (D) Central atom in each species is in sp hybridisation. 27. (D) Excess of Na ions in human system causes high blood pressure. 28. (B) Compounds Heat of formation (kcal mol )
1 + 3
CsCl 104.2
KCl 103.5
NaCl 98.6
LiCl 97.7
29. (B) Due to lesser molecular mass, CH4 is the most volatile compound.
30. (A)
31. (B)
SECTION II 32. (C) At inversion temperature, internal energy of the gas remains unchanged after expansion through the porous plug. 33. (B) During doping, when silicon atom is replaced by arsenic, one electron of arsenic remains unshared which is responsible for n-type semiconductance. 34. (C) Metallic bond of sodium being very weak makes it less malleable and ductile. First ionisation potential of sodium is lower than that of magnesium. 35. (B) Yield of oxidation product of primary alcohol is less, because the product (aldehyde) undergoes further oxidation. SECTION III 36. (B) Slowest step is the rate determining step. A + B C + D (slow) dx dt = k[A][B]
37. (A) From experiments (1) and (4), when [A]0 is same and when [B]0 is doubled, rate is 23 times increased. Hence, order with respect to [B] is 3.
10
From experiments (1) and (3), when [B]0 is same and when [A]0 is doubled, the rate is not affected. Hence, order with respect to [A] is zero.
0 3 3
Hence, rate = k[A] [B] = k[B] 38. (B) For an elementary reaction, molecularity and order of the reaction are equal. Hence, for A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) + D(g) Rate law is, rate = k[A][B]2 For gaseous reaction, rate = r = kPA P 2 A P = 0.6 atm
A 0 B
+
0 B
2B P = 0.8 atm PB = 0.8 0.4 = 0.4 atm

2
C 0 PC = 0.2 atm
D 0
PA = 0.6 0.2 = 0.4 atm
Initial rate = r1 = k(0.6)(0.8)
... (1) ... (2) = 64 6 64 = 1 6
Rate = r2 = k(0.4)(0.4)2 r r
2 1
k 0.4 0.4 0.4 k 0.6 0.8 0.8
39. (A) LiH is an ionic hydride consisting of Li+ and H ions. During electrolysis of fused LiH, hydrogen is liberated at the positive anode. 40. (B) As the electronegativity of non-metal increases, the stability of their covalent hydrides increases. Thus the stability order is CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF. 41. (A) Ionic hydrides react with protonic solvents like NH3 or H2O liberating hydrogen. CaH2 + 2NH3 Ca(NH2)2 + 2H2 SECTION IV 42. (A) (p), (q); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r), (s) (A)
(B) (C)
11
(D)
43. (A) (q), (r); (B) (q), (s); (C) (p); (D) (q), (s) (A) [Mn(CN)6] (B) [MnCl4]
2 3
: : : :
paramagnetic, d sp paramagnetic, sp
3
2 (C) [Ni(CN)4]
diamagnetic, dsp2 paramagnetic, sp3
(D) [NiCl4]2 (A)
44. (A) (p); (B) (r); (C) (q), (s); (D) (q), (s)
n = 0 Hence, the equilibrium is not affected by pressure change. (B) n = 2 1 = 1 Hence, forward reaction is favoured at low pressure. Kp = Kc (RT)1 or Kp > Kc (C) n = 0.5 Hence, forward reaction is favoured at high pressure. Kp = K RT
c 1 2
c 1 2
or Kp < Kc
RT (D) n = 2 4 = 2
Hence, forward reaction is favoured at high pressure. Kp = Kc(RT)

2
c 2
RT
or Kp < K c
12
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I 45. (A) For real roots, 4 4 4

sec
2
1 2
0 1 4
sec
2
1 2
LHS = RHS 1 4
1 2
1 4
1 4
equality attained, when =
1 2
because sec2 1
Only equality is possible. In this case = 1 , cos2 = 1 2 Possible set of values are cos cos + cos
1 1
and cos = 1
=1+
46. (C) By the data a is perpendicular to both b and c a is parallel to b c Now, a b c = a = a b c cos 0 b c sin 30
= 1 1 1 1 = 1 2 2 47. (B) The expression = sin A + 2 sin A cos B sin C + cos B = sin A + 1 sin B + 2 sin A cos B sin C = sin (A + B) sin (A B) + 1 + 2 sin A cos B sin C = sin C sin (A B) + 2 sin A cos B sin C + 1 = sin C [2 sin A cos B sin (A B)] + 1 = sin C sin (A + B) + 1 = sin C ( sin C) + 1 = cos C
2 2 2 2 2
13
48. (C) In the integral putting x = tan , we get

4 2 4
sec tan
d =
cos sin
0
= Putting y = 2, we get
2
sin22
0
siny y 2
1
0
dy
siny y
0
dy = 2
49. (D) The inequality becomes 2

2x
+2
2x
36 22x
2x
2 9 16 2
2x x
0 36 64
2 8 2x 23 x [3, ) 50. (D) |z + 8i| = 5 represents a circle with centre (0, 8) and radius 5. Greatest distance = PC + radius = 10 + 5 = 15 Least distance = PC radius = 10 5 = 5
14
51. (B) The equation of the tangent is x a 1 2

2
y b
3 2
2
=1
2
... (1) ... (2)
Auxiliary circle is x + y = a C is the centre.
Combined equation of CL, CM is got by homogenising (2) with (1)

2
i.e., x2 + y2 a2
x 2a
3y 2b
=0
Since LCM = 90, 1 1 4 3a 4b

2 2
1 7 4
a b
2 2
3 4
=0
7b2 = 3a2 7a2 (1 e2) = 3a2 e= 2 7
52. (D)
From the graph it is clear that f(x) is zero at atleast 4 places. This implies f (x) is zero at atleast 3 places. Now let h(x) = f(x) f(x) h(x) is zero at atleast 7 places. h(x) = [f(x)] + f(x) f (x) is zero at atleast 6 places. minimum number of zeros of g(x) is 6. 53. (A) The equation to any tangent to the first curve is y = mx + 2 m Solving with xy = 1, we get
2
15
m2x2 + 2x + m = 0 But it is a tangent to the second curve. discriminant = 0 4 4m3 = 0 m3 = 1 m = 1 the equation of common tangent is y = x + 2 SECTION II 54. (D) x > 0, x 1 Now (x + 4) = 25 x+4=5 x = 1, x = 9 Both are not admissible. Hence there is no solution to the given equation. 55. (A) S = aC0 (a + b)C1 +(a + 2b)C2 ... + (a + nb)Cn Writing in the reverse order S=
a nb a 0 n 1b a 1 2
Adding, 2S = (2a + nb) (C0 C1 + C2 ...) = (2a + nb)0 =0 56. (A) I=

7
11 x x x 11
x x x x
dx
2I =
11 11
dx
=3 I= 57. (A) Lt
x 0
3 2 1 ax = 1
Lt
x 0
b = x
16
Lt
x Required limit = e 0
ax
b x
= eab But limit = e and a + b = 6 One of the pair of values are a = 4, b = 2 SECTION III 58. (A) log 0.2 x 2 < log i.e., <
0.2
2
2 2
1 log x 0.2 2
1 log0.2 (x 2) < 0 2 log0.2 (x 2) < 0

0
x2> x2>1 x>3
1 2
x (3, ) 59. (B) The given inequality is log2 2 sin x sin 3x > 0 2 sin x sin 3x > 1 cos 2x cos 4x > 1 cos 2x [2 cos 2x 1] > 1 2 cos 2x cos 2x < 0 cos 2x (2 cos 2x 1) < 0 cos 2x lies between 0 and 2x lies between x lies between 3 and 2 1 2
2 2
and
17
60. (D) x2 6x + 14 is positive for all real x. the requirement is x > 8 The inequality is log
2
... (1) 6x x 8
2
x
1 4
14
<0
6x x 8
2
14
>1
2
x 6x + 14 > (x 8) 10x > 50 x>5 But (1) (2) x>8
... (2)
61. (B) Centres A, B are (0, 0), (3, 4) AB = 5 r2 r1 = 9 16 24 2 =72=5 Circles touch internally. There is only one common tangent. Let M be the point of contact. M divides AO externally in r2 : r1 M is 0 7 6 0 , 2 7 4 3 3 4 8 5 = 3 4 x 6 5 3x + 4y + 10 = 0 8 2 = 6 , 5 8 5
Slope of AO =
Slope of common tangent =
Equation to the common tangent is y 62. (A) A, B are (1, 3), ( 3, 1) AB = 20 r1 + r2 = 1 + 3 = 4 AB > r1 + r2
Circles are non-intersecting. The number of common tangents is 4.

18
63. (A) A, B are (0, 0) and (0, 1) AB = 1 r1 r2 = 4 1 = 3 AB < r1 r2 2nd circle lies completely within the 1st circle. Hence there is no common tangent. SECTION IV 64. (A) (q); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) Solving x
4 2
16 x
2 2
=9
x 9x + 16 = 0 x1 = x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 = 0 x1x2 = 9 x1x2x3 = 0 x1x2x3x4 = 16 (B) Similarly, y4 9y2 + 16 = 0 y1y2y3y4 = 16 (C) 3 4 1 x

1
... (1) ... (2) ... (3) ... (4)
1 x
2
1 x
3
1 =0 x
4
(D) y1y2 = 9 65. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) x 7x + 12 < 0 (x 3)(x 4) < 0 x (3, 4) (B) 1 1 2 x 7 1
2
8 2 |x| 6 4 |x| 3 4 |x| 3 3 |x| 4 4x4

... (1)
19
For the 2nd, x > 0 and |x 2| 0, |x 2| 1 x 1 or 3 and x 2 x (0, 1) (1, 2) (2, 3) (3, 4] or (0, 4] {1, 2, 3} (C) 1 3 x 1
... (2) ... (3)
|x| 4 |x| 4 x ( , 4] [4, ) 1 3 x 1
|x| 2 Not possible for any x R Hence domain is ( 4] [4, ) |x| 1 is not possible. (D) ([x] 3) ([x] + 2) > 0 [x] < 2 or [x] > 3 i.e., x 2 or x 4 i.e., x ( , 2) [4, ) 66. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r) (A) Put x = tan dx = sec2 d I=
sec sec
3
d =
sec1
cos d
x 1 x
2
= sin + C =
+C
20
(B) I =
1 x
2
x 1
1 x dx 1
1
dx
1 dx x
x
3
= log (1 + x) + tan (C) I = x x

3
x+C 1 dx
x x x x x
2
dx
x x x
2
1 1
dx
= x I1 Let 1 1 = A x Bx x
2
C 1
By partial fractions A = 1, B = 1, C = 1
1 dx x
x x
2
dx
1 x
2
dx
1 = log x 1 log (x2 + 1) + tan x 2
I = x log x +
1 2
log (x + 1) tan 2x
x+C
(D) I =
1 x 1
x x
2
dx
2x x
2
x 1
dx
dx x
2 1
1
dx
= log x + 2 tan
x+C
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IX/PCM/P(II)/QNS
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. B. Filling the ORS 8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. ............................................... Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate. ............................................... Signature of the Invigilator
IIT/STS IX/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 1
SEAL
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
SEAL
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. There are two iron pieces A and B at temperatures T and T respectively. A 1 2 appears red and B appears yellow when placed in dark. The relation between temperatures T1 and T2 is given by (A) T1 > T2 (B) T1 < T2 (C) T1 = T2 (D) 4T1 T2
2. A mass m is fastened to one end of a massless spring of natural length a and spring constant k . Holding the other end, a person whirls the apparatus in a horizontal circle at an angular velocity . The radius of the circle is (A) k k
2
(B) k
m ka
(C) k
ka m
2
(D)
ka m
2
3. The radius of Earth is about 6370 km while that of Mars is about 3440 km. Mars has a mass 0.11 times that of the Earth. If an object weighs 200 N on Earth, its weight in Mars will be (A) 100 N (B) 75 N (C) 90 N (D) 85 N 4. A light wave propagated from a point A to another point B gets introduced in its path a glass plate of = 1.5 of thickness 1 mm. The phase of the wave at B will be altered by (A) 10 (C) 2
3
radian
3
(B) 2 10 radian (D) 3 2 10

3
10
radian
radian
5. Two wires of resistivity 1 and 2 respectively, have same length but different radii. If the same potential difference is applied, the currents in them are equal. What is the ratio of their radii? r (A) r r (B) r r (C) r
1 2
1 2
1 2
r (D) r
32 1 2
1 2
1 2
6. 0.2 mL sample of a solution containing 1 10
curie of tritium 1H is injected into the blood stream of an animal. After allowing sufficient time for circulation, 0.1 mL of blood is found to have an activity of 20 disintegrations per minute. What is the blood volume of the animal? (A) 1.9 L (B) 1.1 L (C) 1.5 L (D) 2.5 L
7. A wire shaped to a regular hexagon of side 2 cm carries a current of 2 A. The magnetic induction at the centre of hexagon is (A) 3.93 10 (C) 2 10
5 5
Tesla
(B) 6.93 10 (D) 4 10

3 5
Tesla
Tesla
Tesla
3
8. 12 g of a gas is occupying a volume 4 10
m at a temperature of 7C. After the

4
gas is heated at constant pressure, its density becomes equal to 6 10 is the temperature to which the gas is heated? (A) 1400 K (B) 1100 K (C) 800 K (D) 900 K
g/c.c. What
9. A thermally insulated vessel containing two liquids with initial temperatures T1 and T2 have specific heats s1 and s2 respectively. They are separated by a nonconducting partition. When the partition is removed, the difference between the initial temperature of one of the liquids and temperature T established turn out SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
to be equal to half the difference between the initial temperature of the liquids. What is the ratio of the masses of the two liquids? m (A) m
1 2
s = s
2 1
m (B) m
1 2
s = s
1 2
m (C) m
1 2
2s = s
m (D) m
1 2
2s = s
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The density of air increases with increasing humidity. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK The intensity of sound increases with the density of medium. The speed of sound in humid air is more than in dry air. The sound heard is more intense in carbon dioxide in comparison to air.
12. Statement 1:
One of the characteristics of a stationary wave is the formation of crests and troughs.
because Statement 2: 13. Statement 1: Nodes and antinodes are alone produced in stationary waves. Electrons move from higher potential to lower potential or viceversa.
because Statement 2: Positive charges move from higher to lower potentials.
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 A particle starts S.H.M from the mean position. Its amplitude is a and its time period is T . 14. At one time when its speed is half of the maximum speed, what is its displacement? (A) 3 a (B) 3a 2 (C) a 3 (D) 2a 3
15. When the displacement is one half of the amplitude, what fraction of total energy is kinetic? (A) 1 4 (B) 1 2 (C) 3 4 (D) 7 8
16. At what displacement, the kinetic energy and potential energy are equal? (A) a 2 (B) a 3 (C) a 4 (D) 3a 4
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 Assume that the earth rotating at angular speed suddenly contracts to one third of its present size without any change in the mass. 17. What will be the duration of the new day after contraction? (A) 24 7 hours (B) 24 5 hours (C) 24 9 hours (D) 8 hours
18. What will be the change in weight of a body at the equator? (A) m [6g 24 R] (C) m [7g 25 R]
2 2
(B) m [8g 26 R] (D) m [5g 25 R]

2
19. What is the ratio of the kinetic energies of earth before and after contraction? (A) 1 9 (B) 1 8 (C) 1 5 (D) 1 7
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:
Match the quantities in Column I and Column II correctly. 20. Column I (A) Formation of image by a single refracting (p) surface when light travels from medium of air to medium of refractive index (B) Focal length of a lens f, refractive index 2 (q) surrounded by a medium of refractive index (C) Apparent shift when object and observer (r) are both in rarer medium (D) Lateral shift produced by a slab having (s) parallel sides 1 f v Column II =
2
1 R
1
1 R
2
1 u
t sec r sin (i r) 1
t 1
21.
Column I
Column II
2
(A) A piece of wood has dimensions a, b and c. Its (p) T = relative density is d . It is floating in water such that the side a is vertical. If it is displaced a little, it executes S.H.M of period T given by (B) A test tube with some lead shots in it has total mass m g. Its cross-section is a cm . It floats upright in a liquid of density d g/c.c. When it is executing S.H.M up and down with a period T given by (C) The motion of a particle is expressed by the (r) T = equation a = bx where a is the acceleration and x is the displacement and b is a constant. The time period T is given by (D) A block rests on a horizontal table which is executing S.H.M. in the horizontal plane with an amplitude a . If the coefficient of friction is 0.4, the block just starts to slip then the period of oscillation T is given by 22. Column I Physical quantity (A) Intensity of magnetisation (B) Absolute permeability (C) Magnetic potential (D) Absolute permittivity (s) T =
2 2
4 m agd
(q) T =
10 a g
4 b
4 da g
Column II Name of SI units (p) Weber per metre (q) Farad per metre (r) (s) Henry per metre Ampere per metre
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Which of the following graphs is correct for critical miceller concentration (CMC)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. S will be highest for the reaction, (A) Ca(s) + 1 O2(g) CaO(s) 2 (B) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) (C) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) (D) HgO(s) Hg(l) + 1 O2(g) 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
10
25. At what pH, a 0.1 M solution of an indicator (Ka = 1 10 ) changes the colour? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5
26. In the hydrolytic equilibrium, A + H2O

5
HA + OH
Ka = 1.0 10 . The degree of hydrolysis of a 0.001 M solution of the salt is (A) 10

2
(B) 10
(C) 10
(D) 10
27.
The final product R is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
11
28. In the reaction sequence,
The final product C is
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
29.
X and Y are (A) R COOH and R CH NH 2 2 (B) R CH2OH and R CHO (C) R CHO and R CH2 NH2 (D) R CHO and R CH = N H SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
12
30. Which of the following complex will exhibit optical isomerism?

3 3
(A) Cr en H O
2
(B) Cr en
3 3
(C) trans Cr en Cl NH
2
(D) Cr NH
3 2
3 6
31. Which of the following is used as a most powerful liquid laser after dissolving it in selenium oxychloride? (A) Cerium oxide (C) Promethium sulphate (B) Neodymium oxide (D) Ceric sulphate SECTION II Assertion Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: In a reversible endothermic reaction, Ea of forward reaction is higher than that of backward reaction.
because Statement 2: The threshold energy of forward reaction is more than that of backward reaction. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
13
33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
The rate of a reaction is accelerated by the presence of a catalyst.
The presence of a catalyst makes the value of G more negative. - keto acids are readily decarboxylated to form ketones.
The intermediate carbocation is resonance stabilised.

2
Ni CN
is a diamagnetic complex.
The complex is an inner orbital complex. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 Depending upon the type of the units which occupy lattice points, crystals may be ionic, covalent, metallic or molecular types. The two types of close packing existing in crystals are hexagonal and cubic close packing. Even in close packing, some empty space is left between the units. The empty space is called site or hole or interstitial voids, which is tetrahedral or octahedral depending upon the number of units surrounding the void. 36. A compound consists of A of radius 0.97 and B of radius 2.51 . If B occupy lattice points and A occupy the interstitial void, what is the coordination number of A ? (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
+ + +
14
37. Sodium metal crystallises in bcc lattice with the cell edge, a = 4.29 . The radius of sodium atom is (A) 1.86 (B) 3.72 (C) 0.93 (D) 1.73
38. Titanium crystallises in fcc lattice when it reacts with carbon, carbon atoms occupy octahedral holes. When titanium reacts with hydrogen, hydrogen atoms occupy tetrahedral holes. The formulae of the carbide and hydride are (A) TiC2 and TiH4 (C) Ti3C and TiH2 (B) TiC and TiH2 (D) TiC2 and TiH
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Amines are derivatives of ammonia in which one or more hydrogen atoms of NH3 are replaced by alkyl or aryl groups. Amines can be prepared by reduction of nitrocompounds, amides, cyanides and oximes. Amines are basic. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines have certain common properties. They also differ in some reactions. Aliphatic and aromatic amines also differ from one another in certain reactions. 39. CH3 CN is converted into ethyl amine by (A) LiAlH4 (B) Ni and H2 (C) Na/alcohol (D) All the above
40. Which of the following reactions will not give primary amine?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15
41. Consider the following reactions,
X and Y are respectively (A) R CHO and R CH2 SO3H (B) R CH2 NO2 and R CHO (C) R CHO and R CH NHOH 2 (D) R CH2 NHOH and R CHO SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s
16
42.
Column I (A) Pinacol-Pinacolone Rearrangement (B) Aldol condensation (C) Baeyer-Villiger rearrangement (D) Friedel-Craft s reaction
Column II (p) acid catalysed (q) electrophilic substitution (r) peracid (s) intermolecular Column II
+
43.
Column I (A) KMnO4 + H3O (B) NaOH (C) Na S O 2 2 3 (D) NaCl
(p) AgNO3 (q) I2 in KI (r) Oxalic acid (s) FeSO4 Column II T (p)
b
44.
Column I (A) Colligative property
b f
T (B) Molality (q) K
(C) Mole fraction of solute
(r) P P
(D) Mole fraction of solvent
(s)
P P
0
17
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. The area of the triangle made by the coordinate axes and line making an angle
2
dx 1 tan x
with the x-axis and cutting intercept 2 on y-axis is (C) 1 (D) 1 2 5 32

4
(A) 2
(B) 3
46. A coin is tossed 7 times. The probability of at least 4 consecutive heads is (A) 1 8 (B) 1 16
2
(C)
3 32
2
(D)
47. The solution of the equation sin 4x + cos x = 2 sin 4x cos x is (A) x = n (C) x = n 4 (B) x = n (D) x = n 2 3
2
48. In ABC, D is the midpoint of BC, AD is perpendicular to AC, then 3b is equal to (A) a c
2 2
(B) a + c
(C)
1 2
(D)
2
1 2
2
49. Equation to the tangent at the origin to the curve x (x y) + a (x + y) = 0 is (A) x y = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) x + 2y = 0 (D) a x + ay = 0
2
18
50. The solution of tan y (A) sec y = 1 + 2 cos x
dy dx
= sin (x + y) + sin (x y) at y (B) sec y = 1 2 cos x (D) sec y = 1 2 sin x
= 0 is given by
(C) sec y = 1 + 2 sin x
51. In a plane there are 6 straight lines which will pass through a given point, 7 others which all pass through another given point and 8 others which all pass through a given point. Supposing no other three intersect at any and no two are parallel, the number of triangles formed by the intersection of these straight lines is (A) 1219 52. If G x = 1 2 x (A) 125 28 (B) 1119 (C) 1019 (D) 999
5t
3 G t dt, then the value of G(5) is 5 28 1 28

4 3
(B)
(C)
(D)
25 28
2
53. If t1, t2, t3, t4 are the roots of the equation t t sin 2 + t cos 2 t cos sin = 0, then tan (A) tan tan
1
tan
tan
tan
(B) tan
(C) cot SECTION II
(D) cot
Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
19
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: because Statement 2: If the equation ax + 2 hxy + by + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 represents a pair of straight lines, then abc + 2fgh af bg ch = 0 56. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 57. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
n 2 2 2 2 2
If 3 cos + 2 cos + 4 cos = 0 and 3 sin + 2 sin + 4 sin = 0, then 27 cos 3 + 8 cos 3 + 64 cos 3 = 72 cos ( + + )
3 3 3
If a + b + c = 0, then a + b + c = 3 abc If the equation of the hyperbola is (x + 2y + 1) (2x y) = 4, then the combined equation of its asymptotes are (x + 2y + 1) (2x y) = 0
A solution of |x 1| + |x 2| + |x 3| < 5 is given by 3 < x <
11 3
Whenever x is positive |x| = x and whenever x is negative |x| = x. The value of

18
k =1
22
C is
2
22
C3
Cr + Cr
(n + 1)
Cr
20
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 If a > 0, the minimum value of ax + bx + c is
2
4ac 4a
. It is attained when x =
2
b 2a 27 16 ,
58. If a, b, c are positive and are in G.P., and minimum value of ax + bx + c is then the common ratio of the G.P. is (A) 3 (B) 3 2 (C)
2
3 4
(D) 1
59. If the minimum value of sin 2 x + sin x + cos is non-negative and sin is positive, then the minimum value of cosec sin is (A) 1 12 (B) 1 10 1 x (A) 5 (B) 8
2
(C)
1 8
(D)
1 14
60. The greatest value of
is 5. Then the value of p is p (C) 6 (D) 4
2x
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 The general solution of sin = k is = n + ( 1) , where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, . . . and is the fundamental angle such that sin = k. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
n
21
The general solution of cos = t is = 2n , where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, . . . and is the fundamental angle such that cos = t. 61. A set of solutions of 1 + sin x + cos x = (A) (2n + 1) (where n I) (B) n
3 3
3 2
sin 2x is (D) 3n
(C) 2n
62. The solution of log tan = log 4 log 3 sin is

5 5 4
(A) 2n
(B) 2n
(C) 2n
cos
1 4
(D) 2n
cos
1 3
63. The number of solutions of sin x + cos x = 2 sin 5x, 0 x is (A) 0 Matrix-Match type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s (B) 2 (C) 3 SECTION IV (D) 5
22
Column I 64. (A) If y = (sin

1
Column II (p) 0
x) + (cos
2 2
x) ,
2 then (1 x ) d y
dx
dy is equal to dx 2 d y dx
2 2 2
(B) If x = cos t, y = log t, then at t = e is equal to
dy dx
(q)
(C) If , , , are the smallest positive angles in (r) ascending order of magnitude whose sines are 1 3 sin 2 sin equal to , then 4 sin 8 2 2 2 sin is equal to 2 (D) If sin sin
1
1 5
1 5
cos
= 1, then x is
(s)
3 2
equal to
23
Column I 65.(A) The largest value of 2x 3x 12x + 5 for 2 x 4 occurs at x is equal to (B) The maximum value of 5 cos 3x + 12 sin 3x is (C) AD is the internal bisector of A of ABC. Then AD is equal to (D) S is the circumcentre of ABC. The distance of S from BC is Column I 66.(A) If A =
1 4 5 , then A 6A is 2 1 3 2
Column II (p) 13 (q) 4 (r) a 2 tan A 2bc b c cos A 2
(s)
Column II (p) 5I
(B) If A =
1 2 2 2 2 1 2 , then A 4A is 2 2 1 a b a a a 2b b is
(q) 4I
a (C) a a 1 a 1 a 1 b
2b a b a 2b 1 2 a
2 2
(r) (a b) [1 (a + b)]
(D)
1 is 1
(s) 9b (a + b)
2 b
24
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IX/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS BRILLIANT S HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I 1. (B) Since R > Y T1 < T2 2. (C) Tension in spring = k(r a), where (r a) is extension. This supplies the necessary normal force. k(r a) = m r kr ka = m2r r = k ka m
2 2
3. (B) By Newton s law of gravitation, w = GmM 2 r w w

2 1
M M
2 1
r r
2 1 2 2
IIT/STS IX/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1
where suffix (1) refer to Earth and suffix (2) to Mars. w = w

2
M
1
2 1
r r
2 1 2 2 2
= 0.11
6370 3440
200 = 75 N
4. (B) The refractive index of air is assumed to be 1. The number of waves in air AB over the distance AB is just equal to .
0
The associated wave shift = waves in air and l
2
0
. AB, with glass inserted there are
AB
0
waves in glass. 2 AB
0
Phase difference =
2l 1 = 2
0
2 AB l
3 0
= 2l
2 10
3
1.5
9
500 10 = 2 10 radian 5. (B) Resistance = potential difference current
Since potential difference and current are the same in wires, their resistances are equal. R =
1
l
1
r
2
2 1
l r
2 2
R1 = R2 l
1
r r r r r
2 1 1 2
2 1
l
2
r
2 1 1 2
2 2
6. (B) In the injected sample, the activity = 1 10
(3.7 10 )
10
= 3.7 10 disintegration/s In the sample drawn, activity = = 0.33 disintegration/s. The total 60 activity of entire blood sample is equal to the activity of sample injected. The ratio of total activity of sample withdrawn is equal to the ratio of volumes where V is the injected blood volume. V 0.2 mL 3.7 10 = 0.33 0.1 mL V = 1.1 L 7. (B) Let each side of hexagon be b and corners at a distance a from the centre. Magnetic induction B at O due to AB is given by B = i
0 3
20
sin
sin R
4 a 3 2
, where GO = R
R = GO =
Total induction =
6 i
0
a 3 2
3 i
0
a
7 2
1.732 4 10 2 10
5
= 6.93 10
Wb/m
8. (A) Volume at 7C = 4 10
m3
Let it be heated to x K Volume = V 12 6 10

4
cm = 2 10
3
Since
= constant, 4 10 T 280 2 10
2
2 10 x
x =
280
3
4 10 = 1400 K
9. (A) Let us suppose that the temperature of the mixture of two liquids having initial temperatures T1 and T2 has become T s1 m1 (T T1) = s2 m2 (T T2) T T2 = T T1 m m
1 2
s s
2 1
SECTION II 10. (A) Intensity of sound, I = 22 n2 a2 vd 11. (C) We know that v = . As the density of air decreases with increasing d humidity, the velocity of sound in humid air is greater than in dry air. P
12. (D) 13. (D) SECTION III 14. (B) Maximum velocity = a when v = a 2 = a
2
a 2
the displacement x is given by x

2
5
2 a =a 4 2
x
2
x =
3a 4
x =
a 3 2 1 2 mv
2
15. (C) Kinetic energy =

2
v = a
2 a , where x = a 2 4 2
2 Kinetic energy = 1 m 3a 2 4
3E , where E is total energy. 4 1 2

2 2 2
16. (A) When the displacement is x, the kinetic energy = Potential energy at this displacement =
2 2 2 2 1 1 m x = m a 2 2
2 2 1 m x 2
x2 = a2 x2 2x2 = a2 x = x =
2
a a
2 R 3 . The moment of inertia changes.
17. (C) The new radius becomes
Applying the principle of conservation of angular momentum, we get the new 24 duration of day as hours. 9
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS IX/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 5
18. (B) W = W W = m(9g 27 2R) m(g 2R) = 8(8g 26 2R) 19. (A) The moment of inertia changes after contraction and also the angular velocity. The new moment of inertia and angular velocity are to be calculated. The kinetic energy due to rotation after contraction, the ratio works out to be 1 9 . SECTION IV 20. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) Light travels from air to another medium of refractive index . The object index is u and the image distance is v and R is the radius of curvature of the spherical surface separating medium and air. Then v 1 u = R 1
(B) Focal length of a lens of refractive index 2 surrounded by a medium of refractive index 1 is given by the formula 1 f =
2
1 R
1
1 R
2
(C) Apparent shift when object and observer are both in rarer medium by a slab of thickness t and refractive index is t 1 1 .
(D) The lateral shift produced by a slab of thickness t having parallel sides is t sec r sin (i r), where i the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction.
21. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (q) (A) When the wood is floating with side a vertical and if given a small displacement x , the weight of water displaced is equal to the restoring force. It can be shown that acceleration is proportional to displacement. So motion is simple harmonic. The period is T = 2 da g
(B) As in the previous case, if x is the displacement given to test tube, the restoring force is the weight of the liquid displaced m d x dt
2 2
= xa dg
T = 2
m agd
(C) The motion of particle is given by a = bx, acceleration is proportional to displacement. Motion is simple harmonic. So T = 2 b 2 .
(D) If the block just starts to slip, let the period be T which is When it just slips the force of friction = mg mg = m 2 a g = 4 T T2 =
2
2 2
a
2
4 a 0.4 g
10 a g
22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (p); (D) (q)
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I 23. (A) As the concentration of surfactant increases in the solution, conductivity decreases. At CMC, it becomes minimum and thereafter it remains constant due to miscelle formation. 24. (D) HgO(s) Hg(l) + 1 O2(g) 2 Lower entropy 25. (D) At colour change, HIn = In HIn Ka = H
5 1 1
Higher entropy
Higher entropy
H+ + In In HIn
1
= H
1 10 = [H+] or pH = 5 K 26. (B) Degree of hydrolysis, h =

a w
K c 1 10 1 10
5 14
0.001
14 3
=
3
1 10 1 10
5
10
1 10
= 10 27. (D) NHCOCH3 group is more activating than CH3 group.
28. (C)
29. (C) It is called Stephen s reaction.
It is called Mendius reaction.

3
30. (B)
Cr en
will exhibit optical isomerism.
31. (B) Nd2O3 dissolved in selenium oxychloride is one of the most powerful liquid lasers. SECTION II 32. (C) Threshold energy is the same for both forward and backward reaction as the activated complex is the same. 33. (C) A catalyst accelerates a reaction by decreasing activation energy and hence increasing the rate constant Go is not affected by the catalyst. 34. (C) During decarboxylation of -keto acid, the intermediate formed is carbanion which is resonance stabilised.
2
35. (B)
Ni CN
is diamagnetic, as it does not contain odd electron, and is an
2 inner orbital complex as the hybridisation of the central metal ion is dsp . SECTION III
36. (B)
Radius of A Radius of B
0.97 = 0.4 (approximately) 2.51

+
This value indicates that the hole is tetrahedral. So coordination number of A is 4. 37. (A) For the bcc arrangement of atoms, the radius of atom R is related to edge length a by the equation, 4R = a 3 4.29 a 3 = 3 = 1.86 4 4 38. (B) For n spheres forming close packing, no. of octahedral holes = n and no. of tetrahedral holes = 2n The formula of carbide = TinCn = TiC R = The formula of hydride = TinH2n = TiH2
10
39. (D) CH3 CN is reduced to CH3 CH2 NH2 by LiAlH4, Ni and H2 as well as by Na/alcohol. 40. (C) CH3NC on reduction with LiAlH4, secondary amine is formed. In all other reactions, primary amine is formed. 41. (C)
SECTION IV 42. (A) (p); (B) (p), (s); (C) (p), (r); (D) (p), (q) (A) Pinacol-Pinacolone rearrangement is catalysed by acid. (B) Aldol condensation is catalysed by acid or alkali. It is intermolecular condensation. (C) Baeyer-Villiger rearrangement involves oxidation of ketones into ester by peracids like perbenzoic acid. (D) Friedel-Craft s reaction is an electrophilic substitution in the benzene ring in the presence of AlCl3. 43. (A) (r), (s); (B) (p), (r), (s); (C) (p), (q); (D) (p) (A) Acidified KMnO4 oxidises oxalic acid as well as FeSO4. (B) NaOH neutralises oxalic acid. NaOH also reacts with FeSO4 forming Fe(OH)2. It also reacts with AgNO3. (C) Na2S2O3 reacts with AgNO3 forming a complex Na
3
Ag S O
2
3 2
Na2S2O3 can be titrated with I2 in KI in which Na2S2O3 is oxidised to Na2S4O6. (D) NaCl aqueous solution forms a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution. 44. (A) (s); (B) (p), (q); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property. T b = molality (B) K
b
T K
f
= molality P
0
(C) According to Raoult s law,
P P
0
= mole fraction of solute

0
(D) Mole fraction of solvent, x1 = 1 x2 = 1 P =

P P
0
P P
0
11
PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
2
45. (A) =
0 0
cos x cos x sin x sin x cos x cos x cos x sin x
dx
dx 2
2 = = 4
sin x sin x
dx =
, slope = 1, y-intercept = 2
Equation of the line is y = x + 2 Required area = 1 2 2 = 2 2
46. (D) H-denotes head, T-denotes tail, -denotes any one of head or tail. 1 1 P H = , P T = , P( ) = 1. The pattern for 4 consecutive heads, must be 2 2 any one of the following Nature HHHH Probability
4
1 2 1 2
1 =
4
1 16 1 32 1 32 1 32
THHHH
1 2
1 =
4
THHHH
1 1 1 2 2 1 1 11 2 2
1 =
4
THHHH
12
Required probability = =
1 16 5 32
1 32
47. (B) The equation can be written as (sin 4x cos4 x)2 + cos2 x (1 cos6 x) = 0 sin 4x cos4 x = 0 and cos x (1 cos x) = 0 cos x = 0 or cos x = 1 x = n 2 2 ,
4 6 2 6
or x = n
If x = n
sin 4x cos4 x = sin 4 n
cos
= 0
0=0
while x = n, sin 4x cos4 x = 0 1 = 1 0 x = n 2 is the solution. The other choices do not satisfy the condition. AC CD b 2b = 1 a a 2 b
2
48. (A) In ADC, cos C = =
But, cos C = a
2
2ab c
2
b 2ab
2b a
4b2 = a2 + b2 c2 3b = a c
2 2 2
13
49. (B) The equation to the curve is y = dy dx dy dx x

2
x
2
3 2
a x a x
2 2 2 3 2
x a
3x
4 4
a x
2x
x at x = 0 = a a dy dx =
a 1
Required equation is y = x x + y = 0 50. (B) The equation is tan y = 2 sin x cos y
sec y tan y dy = 2 sin x dx sec y = 2 cos x + k y 2 = 01=0+kk=1
sec y = 1 2 cos x 51. (A) Let the points be A, B, C. Total number of lines is 21. Required number of triangles = Number of selection of 3 lines from these 21 lines keeping in mind that the selection of 3 lines from the lines through A, B, C will not give any triangle =
21
C3 ( C3 + C3 + C3)
= 1219 52. (A) Differentiating using Leibnitz rule, G x = 1 x

2 2
5x
3G x 1
0 2 x
3
5t
3G t dt
G 5 =
1 5
2
5.5 3 25 125 28
3G 5
= 5 G 5 =
G 5
14
53. (C) t1 = sin 2, t1 t2 = cos 2, t1t2t3 = cos and t1 t2 t3 t4 = sin tan (tan
1
t1 + tan
t 2 + tan
t3 + tan
t4)
t1 t1 t 2 t 3 t1 t 2 t1 t 2 t 3 t 4
sin 2 cos sin 1 1 = cot 2 cos 2
cos 2 sin sin 2 sin
SECTION II 54. (A) 3 cos + 2 cos + 4 cos = 0 3 sin + 2 sin + 4 sin = 0 (1) + i(2) gives, 3(cos + i sin ) + 2 (cos + i sin ) + 4 (cos + i sin ) = 0 3x + 2y + 4z = 0 Because of statement 2, we get (3x) + (2y) + (4z) = 3 3x 2y 4z 27 (cos + i sin ) + 8(cos + i sin ) + 64(cos + i sin ) = 72 (cos + i sin ) (cos + i sin ) (cos + i sin ) Equating the real parts on both sides, we get 27 cos 3 + 8 cos 3 + 64 cos 3 = 72 cos ( + + ) 55. (D) Combined equation of the asymptotes is (x + 2y 1) (2x y) = k Applying the statement (2), we get k = 0 combined equation of the asymptotes is (x + 2y 1) (2x y) = 0
3 3 3 3 3 3
... (1) ... (2)
15
56. (A) When x > 3, x 1 + x 2 + x 3 < 5 (Because of statement 2) 3x 6 < 5 3x < 11 x < 11 3
57. (A) The expression = =

18 18
C3 +
21 18
C2 +
20 19
C2 +
19 20
C2 +
18 21
C2
C3 +
C2 +
C2 +
C2 +
C2
= 19C3 + 19C2 + 20C2 + 21C2 [Applying statement 2] = 20C3 + 20C2 + 21C2 (again applying) = =
21 22
C3 +
21
C2 (again applying)
C3 SECTION III
58. (B)
4ac 4a 4b
2 2
=
2
27 16 27 16
b
2
4a b a b a
2 2
9 4 3 2 (Q a, b are +ve) 3 2
Common ratio =
59. (C) 4 sin 2 cos sin2 0 8 cos2 sin sin2 0, sin > 0 8 cos2 sin 0
16
8 (1 sin2 ) sin 0 1 sin sin

2
1 cosec sin 1 8 8
60. (C) The given data implies, the minimum value of x2 + 2x p is 5 4p 4 4 =5
4p 4 = 20 p=6 61. (A) The given equation is 13 + sin3 x + cos 3 x 3 1 sin x cos x = 0 sin x + cos x + 1 = 0 is the solution sin x + cos x = 1 cos x 4 4 = 3 4 = 2n 3 4 1 2
= 2n 4
One set is x x = 2n + = (2n + 1)
62. (D) The given equation is tan = 3 sin sin 1 cos
log
tan
4
log 5
1 log (3 sin ) 4 log 5

4
3 = 0
sin = 0 is not possible because of definition of log. cos = 1 3

17
= 2n cos
1
1 3 makes sin negative, so it is rejected because of the
2 n
3 definition of log. cos
cos
= 2n 4
1 3
63. (D) sin x
= sin 5x 4
5x = n + ( 1)n x Case I: n is even 4x = 2 r 4 1 9 16
x = 8r
x =
16 16
in 0 x
Case II: n is odd 6x = 2r 8r 24 1 3 4
x =
x =
3 11 19 , , in 0 x 24 24 24
number of solutions = 5
18
SECTION IV 64. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) y =
2
4
2
2 sin
sin
1
x
2
= dy dx 1
4 =
sin 1 x
2
2 sin 4 sin
1
x 1
1
1 x
2
dy = dx
4 sin
x d y dx
2 2
Differentiating again, 1
2
dy dx
1 2 1 x
2
2x = 1
4 x
2
d y dx
2
dy = 4 dx
(B) dy = dx d y dx
2 2
1 t sin t 1 t sin
2
1 t sin t t cos t sin t dt dx 1 sin t
t t cos t 2 sin t
1 t sin t
2 2
At t = d y dx
2 2
2 =
dy dx 4
2 2
d y dx
2
dy dx
=0
19
(C) < < < 8 = , = 2 + , = 3 expression = 4 sin 2 3 sin 2 2 2 sin sin = 4 sin = 2 sin = 2 1 = 2 1 = 2 1 = 2 = (D) sin sin x = 9 8 = 3 2 cos
1
They have the same sines =
3 2
2 2
2 2
3 cos cos 2
2 2 cos 2
2 sin
cos
2 sin sin 1 8
2 3 2 2
1
1 5
x = x
1 = sin 5
1 5 65. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) f(x) = 2x3 3x2 12x + 5 f (x) = 6x 6x 12 f (x) = 12x 6 f (x) = 0 x2 x 2 = 0 (x 2) (x + 1) = 0 x = 2, 1
2
20
At x = 2, f (x) = 24 6 = + ve x = 2 gives minimum value At x = 1, f (x) = ve x = 1 gives maximum value Now, f( 2) = 1 f( 1) = 12 f(2) = 15 f(4) = 37 f(4) is maximum at x = 4 (B) Put R cos = 5, R sin = 12 R = 169 R = 13 E = 13 cos (3x + ) maximum of E is 13. (C) Area of ABC = Area ABD + Area ADC 1 1 A 1 A bc sin A = c AD sin b AD sin 2 2 2 2 2 bc sin A = AD sin bc 2 sin AD = A b 2 c c
2
A A A cos = AD sin b 2 2 2 2bc A cos b c 2
(D) BS C = 2A BS D = A In BSD, tan A = BD SD SD = BD tan A a 2 tan A
21
66. (A) (p); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) 1 2 6 6A

1
(A) A
5 4
4 5 2 1 5 0 0 5 = 5I
1 2
5 4
(B) A
4A =
9 8 8 8 9 8 8 8 9 5 0 0 0 5 0 0 0 5
1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 1
= 5I
(C) Determinant = 3 a
1 a b a 2b 1 a a b 1 a 2b a 1 a b a 0 b 0 b
2
= 3a
2b b 2b
= 3(a + b) 3b = 9b (a + b) 1 (D) Determinant = 0 0 b

2 2 2
a 1 a
1 1 b
2
a 1
=b a +1b+a1 = b2 a2 b + a = (a b) [1 (a + b)]

IIT STS9 Questions Solutions

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

IIT STS9 Questions Solutions

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

BRILLIANT S

FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JEE 2008 STS IX/PCM/P(I)/QNS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

Maximum Marks: 243

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

m in its bottom. (D) 50 s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

7. A string is under tension so that its length is increased by

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

m and photoelectrons are emitted.

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Column II (p) 2.5 m/s

(q) 0.1 m/s

(r) 0.2 m/s

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

(B) 1.568 10 g mol

(C) 1.568 10 g mol

(D) 3.136 10 g mol

(D) All the above

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

30. Give the product of the reaction:

(D) 31. Consider the sequence of reactions

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

= k[A][B] = k[A] [B][C]

Initial rate 0.10 Ms 0.80 Ms 0.10 Ms 0.80 Ms

0.012 M 0.024 M 0.024 M 0.012 M

0.035 M 0.075 M 0.035 M 0.070 M (B) Rate = k[B]

(C) Rate = k[A][B]

(D) Rate = k[A] [B]

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

(B) CH < NH < H O < HF

(C) H O < HF < CH < NH 2 4 3

(D) CH4 < HF < NH3 < H2O

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

42. (A) (B)

(q) C6H5COOH (r)

Column I (A) [Mn(CN)6] (B) [MnCl4]

Column II (p) diamagnetic (q) paramagnetic (r) d sp (s) sp

(C) [Ni(CN)4] (D) [NiCl4] 44. (A) (B) (C) (D)

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

= 0 have real roots, a possible

value of cos + cos (A) 1 3 6

47. If sin A = x, cos B = y, A + B + C = 0, then x + 2xy sin C + y is equal to (A) sin C

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

0, then a possible value of x can be (D) 6

51. The tangent at a point whose eccentric angle 60 on the ellipse

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

C2 ... + (n + 1) terms is zero.

56. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK