AP Biology Unit 5 Exam Name_________________________ 1. Which is NOT a major function of DNA?

A) store information B) catalyze chemical reactions C) replicate itself D) undergo mutation E) code for the production of proteins 2. The process of transformation in bacteria involves A) transfer of genes for making a mucous capsule. B) infection with a virus called a bacteriophage. C) production of a cancer cell. D) the mating of two different kinds of live bacteria. E) the production of DNase enzymes. 3. One of Chargaff's rules states that A) A + T = G + C. B) A + G = T + C. C) A = G, T = C. D) A = C, T = G. E) A=C=T=G 4. If a species contains 23% A in its DNA, what is the percentage of guanine it would contain? A) 23% B) 46% C) 25% D) 44% E) 27% 5. The amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of _______ in DNA. A) cytosine B) uracil C) guanine D) thymine E) ATP 6. In the Watson and Crick model of DNA, the "steps" of the ladder are composed of A) sugars. B) a purine and a pyrimidine. C) two purines. D) two pyrimidines. E) a sugar and a phosphate molecule.

7. Because one original strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter cell, the replication process is called A) proofreading. B) semiconservative. C) redundant. D) freeing of DNA. E) mutation positive. 8. Which does NOT describe a function of the DNA polymerase molecule? A) recognize the free nucleotide that pairs with the base on the template strand of DNA B) read the strand of template DNA and recognize the base there C) proofread to ensure that the proper base has been incorporated D) make the proper nucleotide to match with the base read on the template strand E) cut out an improperly paired nucleotide and replace it with the proper one 9. Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication? A) It proceeds in a 5'-to-3' direction only. B) One strand of new DNA is replicated continuously and the other strand replicates in fragments. C) DNA can only replicate at one point on a chromosome at one time. D) It occurs more rapidly in bacteria than in eukaryotes. E) Replication can only begin at a special origin of replication. 10. Genetic mutations are A) common in bacteria due to their extremely rapid rate of DNA replication. B) permanent changes in the base sequences of a gene in the DNA strand. C) due to errors in DNA replication. D) sometimes due to proofreading errors. E) All of the choices apply.

Use the following diagram to answer questions 11 - 15

11. What is the term for the three part unit composing this segment of DNA? A) nucleic acid B) pyrimidine C) purine D) nucleotide E) triose sugar 12. We know this is a segment of DNA and not RNA because A) it has a sugar as part of its side B) it has both guanine and cytosine C) it is double-stranded D) it has phosphate incorporated into it E) All of these are true 13. The S in the above diagram is indicating A) ribose B) deoxyribose C) sucrose D) any 5-carbon sugar E) either thymine or adenine 14. The 5 is indicating A) a specific phosphate molecule B) the location of the bonding of a nitrogen base C) the location of the next hydrogen bond D) a specific carbon atom in the sugar E) a specific hydrogen atom

15. The antiparallel nature of this molecule is indicated by A) the guanine/cytosine position B) the three bonds between guanine and cytosine C) the position of the phosphates D) the position of the 3 atom on one side and the 5 atom on the other E) all of these 16. Which of the following is/are true concerning introns? A) Introns are sections of nucleotides found on a mRNA transcript. B) RNA splicing usually removes introns from a mRNA molecule. C) Introns can function to regulate gene expression. D) The sequence of nucleotides found in introns is not known to represent anything usable by the cell. E) All the choices are true except for saying that introns do not represent anything usable by the cell. 17. During the elongation of a polypeptide chain, _________ occurs when the mRNA moves to the next site on the ribosome to read the next codon. A) translocation B) transcription C) translation D) transference E) termination 18. Which of the following would be transcribed into a piece of mRNA? A) a noncoding gene B) a protein-coding gene C) a promoter D) a ribozyme E) RNA polymerase 19. Today, it is most appropriate to state that a gene contains the code for A) one enzyme. B) one protein. C) one polypeptide chain. D) one amino acid. E) one starch, amino acid or lipid molecule. 20. Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information as it is needed for the construction of a protein? A) ribosomal RNA B) transfer RNA C) messenger RNA D) primary mRNA transcript E) ribozymes

21. Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the amino acids that are added to the growing polypeptide chain? A) ribosomal RNA B) transfer RNA C) messenger RNA D) primary mRNA transcript E) ribozymes 22. Which of the classes of RNA molecules is linked with proteins in forming the large and small subunits of a cytoplasmic structure? A) ribosomal RNA B) transfer RNA C) messenger RNA D) primary mRNA transcript E) ribozymes 23. Transcription of a part of a DNA molecule with a nucleotide sequence of A-A-A-C-A-A-C-T-T results in a mRNA molecule with the complementary sequence of A) G-G-G-A-G-A-A-C-C. B) U-U-U-G-U-U-G-A-A. C) T-T-T-G-A-A-G-C-C. D) C-C-C-A-C-C-T-C-C. E) None of the choices are correct. 24. If one strand of DNA has the base sequence AAGCAA, the complementary strand has which of the following sequences? A) UUCGUU B) TTCGTT C) AAGCAA D) UTCGTU E) TTCGTG 25. An intervening sequence in a eukaryotic gene that is not an active part of the gene is called a/an A) exon. B) intron. C) replicon. D) mRNA transcript E) spliceosome 26. A ribozyme is A) B) C) D) E) a section of the DNA that is expressed in the mRNA. a form of RNA that acts like an enzyme. a complex made up of many ribosomes replicating the same strand of mRNA. one of the small ribosomal subunits. the enzyme that attaches amino acids to tRNA.

27. Which is the process by which a protein is constructed? A) translation B) transcription C) transposition D) transformation E) translocation 28. In order to produce many copies of a protein fast, the cell uses A) DNA replication. B) intron self-splicing. C) single-unit ribosomes for high speed translation. D) codon-anticodon reciprocal duplication. E) many RNA polymerase molecules to produce multiple mRNA transcripts at the same time. 29. For translation to take place, which of the following would NOT be required to be present? A) DNA. B) mRNA. C) tRNA-amino acid complex. D) rRNA. E) ribosome. 30. The correct sequence of events in the production of a polypeptide is A) initiation, termination, elongation. B) elongation, termination, initiation. C) termination, elongation, initiation. D) elongation, initiation, termination. E) initiation, elongation, termination. 31. Codons are A) B) C) D) E) triplets coding for a single amino acid. the alphabet of the genetic language. redundant in their coding for various amino acids. matched with anticodons during translation All of the choices are correct.

Use the following diagram to answer questions 32-34

32. The diagram is illustrating what process? A) transcription B) mRNA processing C) translational initiation D) translational elongation E) termination 33. The AUG is part of what molecule? A) DNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) mRNA E) polypeptide 34. The anticodon is represented in the diagram by A) the UAC B) the AUG C) the met D) the 5 end E) the 3 end Use the following diagram to answer questions 35 and 36.

35. If the above segment of DNA were transcribed, the first codon would read A) TGA B) ACT C) ACU D) UGA E) UCU 36. Transcription of the above piece of DNA would result in all of the following EXCEPT A) 5 codons B) a primary mRNA transcript C) a code for 5 amino acids D) a code for a short polypeptide E) a small protein 37. Regarding the lac operon, if lactose is present, which of the following occurs? A) Lactose binds to the operator preventing the promoter from attracting RNA polymerase and preventing transcription. B) Lactose bind to RNA polymerase, which then binds to the promoter and transcribes the needed genes. C) Lactose binds to the repressor, which does not bind to the operator, and RNA polymerase transcribes the needed genes. D) Lactose binds to the operon, which attracts RNA polymerase, then transcription of the needed genes occurs. E) Lactose binds to the CAP site to prevent the CAP protein from binding 38. Which of the following is likely to be expressed? A) euchromatin B) heterochromatin C) DNA without methyl groups D) DNA with many methyl groups E) euchromatin and DNA without methyl groups is more likely to be expressed 39. Which of the following is a method of posttranscriptional control? A) transcription factors B) the life span of a mRNA molecule C) differential processing of mRNA D) how fast the mRNA leaves the nucleus E) both differential processing and how fast mRNA leaves the nucleus are involved in posttranscriptional control.

40. Stopping mRNA from being continuously translated into protein is an important mechanism when enough protein product is available. How is this accomplished? A) Transcribe antisense RNA from ordinarily inactive DNA; this will bind with sense mRNA and prevent the ribosome from further translating it. B) Regulator genes produce repressor proteins that physically bind to mRNA and stop its activity in ribosomes. C) mRNA contains stop units encoded in its sequence so only a limited number of passes can be made through ribosomes. D) The protein products of mRNA translation are feedback repressors that limit translation. E) Other genes turn on to produce enzymes that digest the mRNA. 41. The universal regulatory mechanism in eukaryotes for controlling gene expression includes A) control of the genes transcribed and the rate they are transcribed. B) control of the processing of mRNA after it is transcribed from DNA but before it leaves the nucleus, and control of the rate it leaves the nucleus. C) control of mRNA in the cytoplasm after it leaves the nucleus, including changes to mRNA before translation begins. D) control of polypeptides after they have been synthesized but before they are functional. E) All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism. 42. A form of active chromatin might also be referred to as A) a Barr body. B) heterochromatin. C) a chromosome. D) euchromatin. E) None of these 43. An enhancer site is A) part of an operon. B) found only in prokaryotes. C) located at a distance from the gene it affects. D) an attachment site for RNA polymerase. E) the location of transposons 44. A form of gene regulation that occurs while RNA is still in the nucleus is A) differential intron removal and splicing. B) feedback control. C) binding of the repressor protein to DNA. D) enzymatic cleavage of a polypeptide. E) rate of binding to ribosomes.

45. Human red blood cells can live from two to four months without a nucleus and yet they continue to synthesize hemoglobin. This A) means that the necessary mRNAs are able to persist all this time. B) suggests that there is a low level of ribonucleases to degrade the mRNA. C) means that both the necessary mRNAs must persist and there must be a low level of ribonucleases present. D) still requires DNA coding, although the nuclear membrane is gone, there must be chromatin spread throughout the red blood cell. E) is a chemical process that does not require continued living pathways; the red blood cells are essentially dead after they lose their nuclei. 46. "Jumping genes" that have the ability to move within and between chromosomes are called A) introns. B) oncogenes. C) transposons. D) retroviruses. E) exons. 47. A deletion of one base pair that alters the sequence of codons, as the loss of "A" in C-C-G-T-A-GC... to form C-C-G-T-G-C... is called a(an) A) transposon. B) point mutation. C) carcinogen. D) oncogene. E) frameshift mutation. 48. All of these are considered carcinogens EXCEPT A) cigarette smoke. B) ultraviolet light. C) cabbage and related vegetables. D) X-rays. E) mold-produced aflatoxin. 49. An oncogene is A) a viral gene with no relation to the host cell's genes. B) a mutated form of a proto-oncogene. C) a bacterial gene that causes cancer in the host. D) always seen in human cancer cells. E) a gene that turns off cellular reproduction. 50. The ______ stimulate(s) apoptosis. A) p53 gene B) BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes C) ras oncogene D) bcl-2 protein E) RB tumor-repressor gene

51. A Barr body A) B) C) D) E)

is only found in female cells. is due to an inactivated X chromosome. has the genes contained therein suppressed. is in the heterochromatin form All of the choices are correct.

52. Point mutations A) are due to a change in one DNA nucleotide. B) are a change in a specific codon. C) can cause a genetic disease such as sickle cell disease that is due to a base change that codes for valine rather than glutamate. D) may have no effect on an organism. E) All of the choices are correct. 53. What is the function of restriction enzymes that naturally occur in bacterial cells? A) They are used during DNA replication in the bacterial cell. B) They are used to degrade the bacterial cell's DNA. C) Restriction enzymes are intended to destroy foreign DNA that enters the cell. D) These enzymes are used to attach pieces of DNA together. E) They are used to digest nutrients. 54. Which of the following is mismatched? A) bioinformatics--the study of a genome using computer analysis B) polymerase chain reaction--process that separates DNA fragments according to size C) genomics--the study of genes of humans and other organisms D) proteomics--the study of proteins of the cell. E) cloning- producing genetically identical cells or organisms. 55. What is the function of a vector in genetic engineering? A) cut DNA into many fragments B) carry DNA into a new cell C) link together newly joined fragments of DNA D) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges 56. What is the function of DNA ligase in recombinant technology? A) cut DNA into many fragments B) carry DNA into a new cell C) link together newly joined fragments of DNA D) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges 57. What is the function of the polymerase chain reaction in genetic engineering? A) cut DNA into many fragments B) carry DNA into a new cell C) link together newly joined fragments of DNA D) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges

58. Which best describes a transgenic organism? A) one that acts as the donor for DNA to be moved into another organism B) one produced by cloning a mutant cell C) one that contains a foreign gene and is free-living in the environment D) one produced by the polymerase chain reaction E) any genetically modified organism resulting from laboratory research 59. What is the function of gel electrophoresis in genetic engineering? A) cut DNA into many fragments B) carry DNA into a new cell C) link together newly joined fragments of DNA D) make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA E) separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges Use the following diagram to answer questions 60-62.

60. The above DNA fingerprints are the result of what biotechnology procedure? A) cloning B) gel electrophoresis C) PCR D) recombinant DNA E) gene therapy 61. The above DNA fingerprints were generated by A) cutting the DNA with restriction enzymes then running them through a gel B) loading samples of DNA directly in the gel and subjecting them to electric current C) amplifying the DNA in a PCR machine D) cloning the DNA in a bacterium E) Any of these techniques will work to produce a fingerprint.

62. Male 1 is the father of the child because A) He has fewer bands than male 2 B) All the bands of male 1 match the child C) The mother has more bands matching male 1 than male 2 D) The child's bands that don't match the mother do match male 1. E) All of these can be used as evidence in a paternity suit.