MODEL QUESTIONS ON - COMPUTERS FOR CLERICAL EXAMINATION - 2008 2008 1.

Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit ? 1. Printer 2. Key board 3. Mouse 4. Arithmatic & Logic unit 5. None

2. CAD stands for 1. Computer aided design 2. computer algorithm for design 3. Computer application in design 4. All of the above 5. None

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics ? 1. Ink-jet 2. Daisy Wheel 3. Laser 4. Dot-matrix 5. None

4. A program written in machine language is called ? 1. Assembler 2. Object 3. Computer 4. Machine 5. None

5. The father of Modern Computer is 1. Charles Babbage 2. Vonnuumann 3.Danies Ritchel 4. Blaise Pascal 5. None

6. The Word FTP stands for 1. File Translate Protocol 2. File Transit Protocol 3. File Transfer protocol 4. file typing protocol 5. None

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called 1. BASIC 2. FORTRAN 3. Machine Language 4. COBOL 5. None

8. Best Quality graphics is produced by 1. Dot Matix 2. Laser Printer 3. Inkjet Printer 4. Plotter None

9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as 1. Corrupted 2. Volatile 3. Non-Volatile 4. NonCorrupted 5. None

10. The linking of computers with a communication system is called 1. Networking 2. Pairing 3. Interlocking 4. Assembling 5. Sharing

11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has 1. 16 address lines 2. 16 Buses 3. 16 Data lines 4. 16 routes 5. None

12. Data going into the computer is called 1. Output 2. algorithm 3. Input

4. Calculations

5. flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?

1. LAN

2. DSL

3. RAM

4. USB

5. CPU

14. Microsoft Office is 1. Shareware 2.Public domain software 3. Open-sourse software 4. A vertical market application 5. An application suite

15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer 5. It depends on the speed of the computer's processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called 1. Operating System 2. Computer 3. Office 4. Compiler 5. Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can 1. run faster 2. go on line 3. share information and /or share peripheral equipment 4. E-mail 5. None

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through 1. Flash memory 2. CMOS 3. Bays 4. Buses 5. Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet? 1. Lines & spaces 2. Layers & Planes 3. Height & Width 4. Rows & Columns 5. None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the 1. mouse 2. logo 3. hand 4. palm cursor

21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as 1. Boot 2. Bug 3. Biff 4. Strap 5. None

22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________ 1. Bug 2. Vice 3. Lice 4. Worm 5. None

23. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states. 1. Multivibrator 2. Flip-flop 3. Logic gates 4. laten 5. None

24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as 1. Spam 2. Trash 3. Calibri 4. Courier 5. None

25. DOS stands for 1. Disk Operating 2. Disk operating 3. Digital Operating 4. Digital Open system 5. None

System

session

System

26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft 1. Babbage 2. Bill Gates 3. Bill Clinton 4. Bush 5. None

27. Which of the following are input devices. 1. Keyboard 2. Mouse 3. Card reader Scanner 5. All of these

28. Examples of output devices are 1. Screen 2. Printer 3. Speaker 4. All of these 5. None

29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer 1. Control unit 2. Central Processing unit 3. Arithmetic and language unit 4. Monitor 5. None

30. IBM stands for 1. Internal Business Management 2. International Business Management 3. International Business Machines 4. Internal Business Machines 5. None 31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line 1. Compiler 2. Interpreter 3. Linker 4. Loader 5. None

32. ___________ is an OOP principle 1. Structured programming 2. Procedural programming 3. Inheritance 4. Linking 5. None

33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications 1. Commercial 2. Scientific 3. Space 4. Mathematical 5. None

34. RAM stands for 1. Random origin money 35. 1 Byte = ? 1. 8 bits 2. 4 bits 3. 2 bits 4. 9 bits 5. None 2. Random only memory 3. Read only memory 4. Random access memory 5. None

36. SMPS stands for 1. Switched mode power supply 2. Start mode power supply 3. Store mode power supply 4. Single mode power supply 5. None

37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as 1. Modem 2. Multiplexer 3. Modulator 4. Demodulator 5. None

38. VDU is also called 1. Screen 2. Monitor 3. Both 1 & 2 4. printer 5. None

39. BIOS stands for 1. Basic Input Output system 2. Binary Input output system 3. Basic Input Off system 4. all the above 5. None

40. Father of 'C' programming language 1. Dennis Ritchie 2. Prof John Kemeny 3. Thomas Kurtz 4. Bill Gates 5. None

MODEL QUESTIONS ON - COMPUTERS FOR CLERICAL EXAMINATION - 2008 ANSWERS 1 (4) 6 (3) 11 (3) 16 (1) 21 (2) 26 (2) 31 (2) 36 (1) 2 (1) 7 (3) 12 (3) 17 (3) 22 (4) 27 (5) 32 (3) 37 (1) 3 (2) 8 (4) 13 (1) 18 (3) 23 (2) 28 (4) 33 (1) 38 (3) 4 (1) 9 (2) 14 (5) 19 (4) 24 (1) 29 (2) 34 (4) 39 (1) 5 (1) 10 (1) 15 (3) 20 (5) 25 (1) 30 (3) 35 (1) 40 (1)

Marketing: Introduction to Marketing & its importance This aspect covers concepts like market, its types, scope, marketing as a function and as a philosophy, marketing management, its importance and marketing mix. Introduction: A layman's concept of marketing is that of selling the products or services but the idea is much broader. It is essentially related to customer satisfaction. The first barter exchange can be looked upon as a reflection of the realization that exchange adds value to both parties to the transaction. This indeed marked the dawn of marketing. Since then the evolution of commerce through various stages has led to development of marketing into a philosophy of business. Marketing is both a concept and a practice; an approach to exchange relationships, which provides the driving force for formulation of strategies of every type of organization. It is an important socio-economic activity. Marketing is not limited to business activity alone, but it also applies to other activities like social services, elections etc. Marketing concept: Market: The word market generally refers to the place where goods can be bought or sold. A market consists of customers sharing a particular need or want who might be able to engage in exchange to satisfy that need or want. Market implies: a) A situation where buyers and sellers of a commodity interact. b) Coming together of buyers and sellers of the same or similar commodities. It is possible for sellers to be dealing in one variety of soap and the buyers being interested in another variety, which can be substituted by the one available with sellers. Market is not necessarily a geographical area. Groups of buyers and sellers can be located wide apart from each other. With the advanced and developed communication and transport facilities, the buyers and sellers can easily contact each other even if they are physically at long distances. A market may comprise: 1) One Seller and many Buyers 2) Many sellers and One Buyer 3) Many sellers and Many Buyers 4) Few sellers and Many Buyers 5) Many Sellers and Few Buyers Types of Markets

Basis of classification Geographical area Product Nature of transaction Volume of transaction

Types of market (a) Local market; (b) Regional market; (c) national market; (d) World/ global marker (a) Cotton/vegetable/tea market; (b) share market; (c) bullion market; (d) capital market; (e) real estate market (a) Cash/spot market; (b) futures market (a) Retail market; (b) Wholesale market

Marketing: Marketing has been defined in several ways: like 1) Meeting needs profitably 2) The process of determining consumer demand for a product or service, motivating its sale and distributing it into ultimate consumption at a profit. 3) Creation and maintenance of mutually satisfying exchange relationships etc. From several definitions given world-wide it can be interpreted that Focus of marketing is on consumer. A human need is a state of deprivation of some basic satisfaction, which results in desire for specific satisfiers of these needs, namely wants. Wants for specific products backed by an ability and willingness to buy them results in demand. The concept has become more comprehensive- moving from assessing and fulfilling consumer demand, to identifying needs and wants and determining products and services. Indeed in the present age, marketing includes not only anticipating the consumer needs but also kindling needs and providing new products and services to fulfill them. Scope: The scope of marketing in modern days covers, besides goods and services, other entities like experiences, events, persons, properties, organizations, information and ideas. Marketing is a combination of business management and the philosophy of business. Marketing as a management function: From one perspective it is a functional area of management and is within the firm using various developed techniques for achieving specific objectives. Its major role is to identify the current and future needs and wants of specifically defined target markets. The organization acts upon this information to produce goods and services to satisfy customer requirements. Marketing provides entrepreneurship by identifying opportunities in customer requirements and driving mobilization of resources to capitalize on them. Marketing forms interface with the existing and potential customers. Marketing as a business philosophy: From another perspective marketing is much more than a management function. It is a way of thinking about business and a way of working running through every aspect of the firm's business. It is a customer and profit-oriented approach permeating the entire business. It is, therefore, an attitude of mind and hence an overall business philosophy. Marketing vs Selling: Marketing is a broader concept than selling. Firms sell their goods or services to the customers who buy them. Marketing relates to producing or creating goods or services needed by the customers. In the former case, the objective is to sell whatever is available with the firms. While in case of marketing, the objective is to meet the customer's need. Marketing function starts much before actual selling of products. Selling is an operational activity, whereas marketing is a total management concept comprising identification of customer needs, developing suitable products to meet those needs, delivering (selling) the products to the customers and facilitating their consumption for ultimate satisfaction of those needs. Thus selling is a part of marketing.

Selling is product focused whereas marketing is customer focused. Selling is oriented to the needs of seller (the firms) where as marketing is oriented to the needs of the buyer (the customers). Selling aims at earning profits by maximizing sales volume. Marketing aims at earning profits by maximizing customer satisfaction. Marketing converts customer needs into profitable opportunity, whereas selling encashes such opportunities. Advertising is a form of communication that typically attempts to persuade potential customers to purchase or to consume more of a particular brand of product or service. Many advertisements are designed to generate increased consumption of those products and services through the creation and reinforcement of "brand image" and "brand loyalty". For these purposes, advertisements sometimes embed their persuasive message with factual information. Every major medium is used to deliver these messages, including television, radio, cinema, magazines, newspapers, video games, the internet and billboards. Advertising is often placed by an advertising agency on behalf of a company or other organization. Advertisements are seen on the seats ofshopping carts, on the walls of an airport walkway, on the sides of buses, and are heard in telephone hold messages and in-store public address systems. Advertisements are often placed anywhere an audience can easily or frequently access visual, audio and printed information. Organizations that frequently spend large sums of money on advertising that sells what is not, strictly speaking,l a product or service include political parties, internal groups, religious organizations, and military recruiters. Non-profit organizations are not typical advertising clients, and may rely on free modes of persuasion, such as public service announcements. Advertising spending has increased dramatically in recent years. In 2006, spending on advertising has been estimated at $155 billion in the United States and $385 billion worldwide Advertising is increasingly invading public spaces, such as schools, which some critics argue is a form of child exploitation. Marketing management: It is the process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion and distribution of goods, services and ideas to create exchanges with target groups that satisfy customer and organizational objectives. It comprises four key functional aspects, viz., Analysis, Planning, Implementation and Control. The significance of marketing has been realized by all organizations whether in service or trade. Banks are also not an exception to this. Highlights of the Bank Marketing can be attributed to the following points. 1. All Organizations provide Services 2. Aim to satisfy Customer needs and wants of specific nature. 3. The nature of needs and wants of the customer are generally financial, while some may be incidental to or related these 4. The Competitive element, efficiency and effectiveness are major factors in the process. 5. Organizational objectives are still the driving force. MARKETING RESEARCH Marketing Research is the function that links consumer, customer and public to the market, through information which is used to identify and define marketing opportunities and problems. It generate, refine and evaluate marketing actions, monitor marketing performance and improve understandings of marketing as a process-American Marketing Association. Marketing Research To
Identify Custome r Need and Wants

Marketing

To Satisfy

WHY MARKETING RESEARCH To Identify the Needs and Wants Mind it-Wants are ever Changing To Intensify the Marketing Operations due to Continuous Feedbacks. To Evaluate the Marketing Operations and its Effectiveness vis--vis the Expectations To Reduce the Risk of Failures To Save Cost and Time WHERE MARKETING RESEARCH? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Financial Research: Banking, Securities, Credit Card, Insurance, and Mutual Funds. Automotive Research : Vehicles, Components, and Tyres. Media Research Consumer Products Research Durables and FMCG. Industrial Research: Chemicals and Plastics Packaging, Textiles, Engineering, Bulk Drugs, Metals and Minerals, Oil and Gases. 6. Healthcare Research: Consumers, Doctors, Chemists, Hospitals, Patients and Pharma companies. MARKETING INFORMATION SYSTEMS- MIS Source Internal continuous data: Information like allocation of discounts, promotional and transport costs, sales achieved, no of new accounts opened, size of order etc. Internal ad-hoc data: How sales have reacted to price change or change in advt. Environmental scanning: Economic, social, legal and technological forces. Marketing research: Immediate information about markets and reaction of these to various product, price, distribution and promotion actions. Marketing mix decisions.

STP Process
Market Segmentation 1. Identify segmentation variables & segment the market 2. Develop Profiles of resulting segments 3. Evaluate the attractiveness of each segment 4. Select the target segments

Market Targeting

Market Positioning

5. Identify possible positioning concepts for each target segment 6. Select, develop, and communicate the chosen positioning concept

Market Segmentation

Dividing a market into distinct groups with distinct needs, characteristics, or behavior who might require separate products or marketing mixes.

Market Segmentation

More precise definition of customer needs & wants

More Accurate marketing objectives

Improved resource allocation

Better Marketing results

Market Segments & Niches

Market Segments are large identifiable groups within a market, within the car market buyers seeking basic transportation, high performance A niche is a more narrowly defined group which seeks a special combination of benefits,

Bases For Segmenting Consumer Markets

GEOGRAPHIC

DEMOGRAPHIC

PSYCHOGRAPHIC

BEHAVIORAL

Psychographic Segmentation

Buyers are divided into groups on the basis of their knowledge, attitude, use or response to a product Occasion, when they develop a need to purchase or use a product Ex- breakfast cereals, Horlicks, Festival, marriage Benefits, A powerful form, based on the benefits they seek from the product

Marketing Mix: Marketing is an ongoing process of planning and executing the marketing mix (Product, Price, Place, Promotion) for products, services or ideas to create exchange between individuals and organizations. Marketing tends to be seen as a creative industry, which includes advertising, distribution and selling. It is also concerned with anticipating the customers' future needs and wants, which are often discovered through market research. Essentially, marketing is the process of creating or directing an organization to be successful in selling a product or service that people not only desire, but are willing to buy. Therefore good marketing must be able to create a "proposition" or set of benefits for the end customer that delivers value through products or services Marketing mix is the set of marketing tools that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in the target market.

The 4 P's of Marketing

Marketing decisions generally fall into the following four controllable categories:

Product Price Place (distribution) Promotion

The term "marketing mix" became popularized after Neil H. Borden published his 1964 article, The Concept of the Marketing Mix. Borden began using the term in his teaching in the late 1940's after James Culliton had described the marketing manager as a "mixer of ingredients". The ingredients in Borden's marketing mix included product planning, pricing, branding, distribution channels, personal selling, advertising, promotions, packaging, display, servicing, physical handling, and fact-finding and analysis. E. Jerome McCarthy later grouped these ingredients into the four categories that today are known as the 4 P's of marketing, depicted below:The Marketing Mix

These four P's are the parameters that the marketing manager can control, subject to the internal and external constraints of the marketing environment. The goal is to make decisions that center the four P's on the customers in the target market in order to create perceived value and generate a positive response.

Product Decisions
The term "product" refers to tangible, physical products as well as services. Here are some examples of the product decisions to be made:

Brand name Functionality Styling Quality Safety Packaging Repairs and Support Warranty Accessories and services

Price Decisions
Some examples of pricing decisions to be made include:

Pricing strategy (skim, penetration, etc.) Suggested retail price Volume discounts and wholesale pricing Cash and early payment discounts Seasonal pricing Bundling Price flexibility Price discrimination

Distribution (Place) Decisions

Distribution is about getting the products to the customer. Some examples of distribution decisions include:

Distribution channels Market coverage (inclusive, selective, or exclusive distribution) Specific channel members Inventory management Warehousing Distribution centers Order processing Transportation Reverse logistics

Promotion Decisions
In the context of the marketing mix, promotion represents the various aspects of marketing communication, that is, the communication of information about the product with the goal of generating a positive customer response. Marketing communication decisions include:

Promotional strategy (push, pull, etc.) Advertising Personal selling & sales force Sales promotions Public relations & publicity Marketing communications budget

Limitations of the Marketing Mix Framework

The marketing mix framework was particularly useful in the early days of the marketing concept when physical products represented a larger portion of the economy. Today, with marketing more integrated into organizations and with a wider variety of products and markets, some authors have attempted to extend its usefulness by proposing a fifth P, such as packaging, people, process, etc. Today however, the marketing mix most commonly remains based on the 4 P's. Despite its limitations and perhaps because of its simplicity, the

use of this framework remains strong and many marketing textbooks have been organized around it. 4 Ps of marketing Marketing decision variables are those variables under the firm's control that can affect the level of demand for the firm's products. They are distinguished from environmental and competitive action variables that are not totally and directly under the firm's control. The four marketing decision variables are:

Price variables

Allowances and deals Distribution and retailer mark-ups Discount structure

Product variables

Quality Models and sizes Packaging Brands Service

Promotion variables

Advertising Sales promotion Personal selling Publicity

Place variables

Channels of distribution Outlet location Sales territories Warehousing system

From a buyer's point of view the four Cs that correspond to 4Ps are as follows. 4Cs of marketing: Customer's needs and wants Cost to the customer Convenience Communication

Service :

A Service is any act or performance that one party can offer to another that is essentially intangible and does not result in the ownership of anything. Its production may or may not be tied to a physical product. A service is an activity or series of activities of more or less intangible nature that normally, not necessarily, takes place in interactions between the customer and service

employees and / or physical resources or goods and/or systems of the service provider, which are provided as solutions to customer problems. This highlights the following important features 1. Services are by and large activities 2. As a result the services are intangible. 3. They take place in the interaction between the customer and service provider, which means that the services are produced and consumed simultaneously Services now account for more than 70% of employment and GNP of most industrialised nations. But as far there is no exact distinction between goods and services.

Characteristics of Services : The main characteristics of services are Intangibility, Inseparability, Heterogeneity, Perishability. Intangibility refers to the aspects not associated with any physical form or characteristics. It is very much pronounced in the pure service element like the lecture given by a Professor. Inseparability refers to the fact that production and consumption of the services are inextricably intertwined. Heterogeneity or Variability is a result of the fact that Services are usually delivered by Human beings, whose performance is necessarily variable ; quality control is extremely difficult. It makes it difficult to standardize the output of certain services. Perishability means that the service "units" can not be stopped. If a seat is unfilled when a plane leaves or the play starts it cannot be stored and sold on next day or next week. The revenue is lost forever.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS-1 1. Which of the following is not correct with regard to marketing? a. Marketing is a Management Function b. Marketing is a Philosophy c. Marketing is not related to Business Activity alone. d. Marketing means selling. e. Objective of Marketing is to achieve customer satisfaction. 2. Which of the following is a part of Marketing Management? a. Identification of Business Opportunities b. Understanding the Customer needs c. Producing according to customer needs d. Delivering as per Customer convenience e. All the above 3. If Surf-Excel is three pack sizes and two types of packages what is the product depth? a. Two b. Three c. Six d. Eight e. Nine 4. For promotion under 4P which aspect is not taken into account ? a. Advertisement b. Sales Promotion

c. Sales Force d. Public Relations e. None of the above 5. In 4P model for marketing, the place relates to which aspect? a. Distribution b. Production c. Transportation d. A & C e. B & C 6. What among the following is the feature of experienced goods? a. These are intangible b. These cannot be packaged c. These cannot be touched d. These can be evaluated only after use e. All the above 7. A Brand name is? a. A Symbol or a design for the purpose of identification. b. Its legal version is trademark c. It is given legal protection. d. All the above. e. None of the above. 8. Rural Markets are a. Homogeneous b. Heterogeneous c. Organized d. Un-organized e. None of these

9. When very little is known about the problem being examined, which type of marketing research is done ? a. Exploratory Research b. Descriptive Research c. Casual Research d. Predictive Research e. None of these
10. It is difficult to measure the morale of the sales team directly because a. It is a tangible state b. It is an intangible state c. Employees hide the truth d. All the above e. None of these 11. Which among the following is / are user /users of the outcome of the Marketing Research a) Consumers b) Business Firms c) Government d) Producers a. Only b b. Only a & b c. a, b, & d d. All the above e. None of these 12. In Banking Services Market can be segmented on the basis of a. Density b. Customers c. Both a & b d. Neither a & b e. None of these 13. Sales targets are fixed on the basis of a. Past experience b. Time period c. Brand positionary

d. All the above e. None of these 14. Which among the following is an example of Secondary Media a. Television b. Radio c. Hoardings d. News Papers e. None of these 15. Emotional and Rational buying motives can be differentiated on the basis of a. Time in purchasing b. Dominance c. Nature of Product d. All the above e. None of these 16. Marketing implies "Meeting needs _____________" (Ans: Profitably) 17. The following does not represent a market situation. a. A bank run dispensary in its staff quarters b. A fund rising Charity Show for the members of an NGO c. A Meditation Camp of a religious Organization conducted for its members d. A stall distributing Tirumala prasadam in a mandir 18. The markets are grouped into different types based on the geographical area, location of market place, product, nature of transaction and volume of transaction. In the above statement the following is not correct? a. Nature of transaction. b. Geographical area c. Location of Market place d. Volume of transaction 19. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is called a. Transaction b. Exchange c. Relationship d. Value 20. Services have special characteristics namely ______ which affect their Marketing process a. Intangibility b. Inseparability c. Heterogeneity d. Perishability e. All the above
21. Just in time technique is wider acceptance world over. The technique was

first introduced in a. India b. Indonesia c. Japan d. America e. None of these 22. Consumer day is celebrated on ___________ (Ans: March 15th ) 23. In on-line marketing, there is a. No exchange b. Exchange is the core of marketing c. Guarantee d. Only Warrantee e. None of these

24. Which among the following is /are characteristics of common market ?

a. A common external trade policy exist b. There are no trade barriers among members c. Creates mobility of factors of production d. All of these.
25. In case of Diamond, if the price goes up slightly, demand will fall by a much larger margin. The demand is a. Zero elastic. b. Highly price elastic. c. Income elastic. d. Low price elastic. e. None of these 26. In modern times ________ is defined as the 5th P of Marketing a. Policy b. Period c. Perception d. Packaging e. None of these 27. Advertising creates consumers demand for products that they would otherwise not feel a need to buy. This statement is a. Partially true b. Absolutely true c. Partially biased d. Any one of the above e. None of the above 28. The Strategy used to charge different prices for the same product is called a. Price discrimination b. Price Revision c. Tariffs d. Restrictions e. None of these 29. The nature of Internet commerce can best be described as a. Tangible b. Non-territorial c. Territorial d. Both a & b e. None of these 30. The law of Pull & Push of Web Marketing refers to a. Pull people to your site, then push quality information to them. b. Pull people to your site and force them to purchase c. Push people into your business d. Pull the interest of people e. None of these 31. What is the first thing about an advertisement that attracts your attention ? a. Product b. Music c. Model d. Special effects e. None of these 32. M-Commerce is a new term in latest marketing technique. It is ______ a. Misuse of Mobile phones & E-Commerce b. Mobile Phones in Marketing c. Marketing by Commerce Students d. Mega Commercial activities e. None of these 33. If the market share of a company is increasing a. It is a sign of progress b. The company must take the action to arrest the trend c .Both a & b. d. Neither a nor b e. None of these
34. In modern days sales approach is based on

a. Value sharing b. Relation building

c. Co-ordinated approach d. All the above e. None of these

35. What do you mean by Delphi Technique in Market Research? a. In this a questionnaire is prepared b. Depth Interviews are conducted c. Information is elicited by means of discussion s with various experts in the field d. All the above e. None of these

36. In the AIDAS theory of selling 'D' stands for a. Determinants b. Demand c. Desire d. Development e. None of these 37. Which criteria should be adopted by a marketer for a brand extension decision? a, The fit b. The Value perception c. Competitive edge d. All the above e. None of these 38. The quantity for which orders are placed when stock reaches the re-order level is called a. EOQ b. EPQ c. DOQ d. MOQ e. None of these 39. In testing a new product, concept testing is a. Customer reaction to the idea of product b. Sales man reaction to the idea of product c. To put the real product into a few selected markets d. To assess the total product performance e. None of these 40. Niche Marketing refers to a. A strategy that specialises in limited or unique product category b. A strategy that specialises Niche products c. Both a & b d. Neither a Nor b
e. None of these 41. Which of the following is the best definition of value?

a. A technical measure of a company's selling price relative to its production costs. b. A measure of the mark-up charged by companies c. The lowest prices available to consumers d. The best 42. Which of the following is NOT usually defined as an element of the marketing mix? a. Products b. People c. Place d. Profits 43. Peter Drucker noted the relationship between selling and marketing in the following terms: a. Marketing is a subsidiary component of selling b. The aim of marketing is to make selling superfluous c. The aim of selling is to make marketing superfluous d. Selling 44. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the concept of a customer? a. A customer and consumer are always the same thing - the terms are completely interchangeable

b. Customers can be described as clients c. A customer doesn't necessarily consume the product that they have purchased d. Students 45. Which of the following is the best definition of value? a. A technical measure of a company's selling price relative to its production costs. b. A measure of the mark-up charged by companies c. The lowest prices available to consumers d. The best ratio of benefits to costs available to buyers 46. A value chain in marketing is: a. An operator of discounts stores with many branches b. A factory outlet store c. A process by which goods gain value as they pass through different levels of intermediaries d. A process by which companies target value conscious customers 47. In general, concern with the ecological environment is most closely associated with economies characterized by: a. Rapid economic growth b. High levels of GDP per capita c. Low levels of GDP per capita d. Abundant natural resources 48. Business ethics is essentially about: a. Universal codes of business practice b. Societal orientated behaviour by firms c. A culturally conditioned agreement on what constitutes right and wrong d. Honesty e. None of these 49. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with a firm's macroenvironment? a. Study of the changing birth rate b. Analysis of household savings ratios c. A new staff incentive scheme d Cultural convergence e. None of these 50. Which of the following is NOT part of an organization's microenvironment? a. Customers b. Suppliers c. Competitors d. Government legislation e. None of these 51. Which of the following is an element of an organization's internalenvironment? a. Competitors b. Employees c. Wholesalers d. Retailers e. None of these 52. A method of comparing the internal capabilities of an organization with the demands and challenges of its external environment is referred to as: a. SHOT analysis b. SWOT analysis c. Stakeholder analysis d. Shareholder analysis e. None of these 53. For most people, the purchase of cheese for daily use can be described as a: a. Routine re-buys b. Modified rebuy c. Completely novel purchase d. High involvement product e. None of these 54. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behavior? a. The length of time involved in the buying process b. The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity c. The number of people involved in the decision-making unit

d. The complexity of an order e. None of these 55. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process? a. Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation b. Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation c. Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation d. Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation e. None of these

56. Needs differ from wants because: a. Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs b. Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants c. Needs are historical; wants are about the future d. Needs and wants are exactly the same e. None of these 57. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)? a. Self-actualization b. Love c. Security d. Physiological e. None of these 58. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form? a. The choice set b. The awareness set c. The total set d. The pre-evaluation set e. None of these 59. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as: a) A primary reference group. b) A tertiary reference group. c) A secondary reference group. d) A non-reference group. e. None of these 60. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase? a) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good b) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product c) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product d) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier e. None of these 61. Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit? a) Supplier b) Gatekeeper c) Decision maker d) User e. None of these

62. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit? a) User b) Influencer c) Gatekeeper d) Buyer e. None of these 63. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System? a) Marketing research b) Decision support system c) Production monitoring system d) Internal r e. None of these

64. Market ______ is the process of identifying groups of customers with basically similar wants, needs, preferences or buying behaviors. a) Development b) Positioning c) Segmentation d) Targeting e. None of these 65. Marketers use a number of definitions of household income in their segmentation and targeting activities. What does disposable income refer to? a) The income that individuals have available to spend after taxation b) Income before the deduction of taxes c) Total gross income d) Income less child benefit receipts e. None of these 66. Positioning of a product is based on: a) The price charged for the product. b) The promotional pitch for the product. c) Product characteristics. d) All of the above e. None of these 67. A marketer needs to be aware of the criteria by which the effectiveness of their segmentation procedures can be assessed. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for evaluating the resulting market segments? a) Perishability b) Size of the resulting segment c) Measurability d) Accessibility e. None of these 68. What does the acronym FMCG refer to? a) Functional, mid-priced, or compulsory goods b) Famous manufacturer's clothing goods (i.e. designer labels) c) Fast moving consumer goods d) Frequent market, consumption goods e. None of these 69. Five stages in the product life cycle can be identified. Which of the following is not a generally accepted stage? a) Introduction b) Peak c) Growth d) Maturity e. None of these 70. In a buying process the first sage is a. Product awareness b. Need arousal c. Information search d. Purchase decision e. None of these

PRACTICE QUESTIONS-2

1. All marketing activities that attempt to stimulate quick buyer action or immediate sales of a product are known as . a. Sponsorship b. Advertising c. personal selling d. sales promotion 2. In general, the single-voice, or synergy principle, involves selecting a specific for a brand. a. positioning statement b. marketing mix c. pricing strategy d. advertising budget 3. Which one of the following is the greatest obstacle to implementing integrated marketing communications? a. Few providers of marketing communications services have the skills to execute IMC programs. b. There is a lack of interest in IMC by top management. c. The cost for implementing an IMC program is difficult to justify. d. Little can be gained by coordinating the various marketing communications elements. 4. The premise underlying geodemographic targeting is that people who also share demographic and lifestyle similarities. a. are in the same income category b. reside in similar areas c. are of the same age d. are of the same gender 5. A detergent that advertises how clean it gets clothes is appealing to the consumer need. a. Functional b. Symbolic c. Biological d. Utilitarian 6. By definition, simply means that consumers come in contact with the marketer's message. a. Perception b. Exposure c. Attention d. Comprehension 7. Marketers can enhance the consumers' ability to access knowledge structures by a. using loud music b. using colorful ads c. employing verbal framing d. repeating brand information 8. Spurithy notices the television commercial because of the loud sounds. This is an example of . a. exposure b. involuntary attention c. nonvoluntary attention d. voluntary attention 9. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives? a. Objectives must specify the amount of change. b. Objectives must be stated in terms of profits. c. Objectives must be realistic. d. Objectives must be internally consistent. 10. An) advertising objective is aimed at achieving communication outcomes that precede behavior. a. precise b. planned c. indirect d. direct 11. A clothing store that sets their advertising budget by following the major competitor and adding an additional 15 percent is using the method. a. percentage-of-sales b. arbitrary allocation c. objective-and-task d. competitive parity 12. The advertising budget procedure used most frequently is the method. a. arbitrary allocation b. marginal cost c. competitive parity d. None of the above. 13. Which value is derived from the need for variety and achieving an exciting life? a. self-direction b. hedonism c. achievement d. stimulation 14. Marketers are sometimes accused of deceptive practices that lead consumers to believe they will get more value than they actually do. ______________ includes practices such as falsely advertising "factory" or "wholesale" prices or a large price reduction from a phony high retail price. a. Deceptive promotion b. Deceptive packaging c. Deceptive pricing d. Deceptive cost structure 15. The study of human populations in terms of size, density, location, age, gender, race, occupation, and other statistics is called: a. Geothermy. b. Demography. c. Ethnography. d. Hemos-popography. 16. When companies make marketing decisions by considering consumers' wants and the long-run interests of the company, consumer, and the general population, they are practicing which of the following principles? a. Innovative marketing b. Consumer-oriented marketing

c. Value marketing

d.

Societal marketing

17. Regulations that arise to ensure that firms take responsibility for the social costs of their products or production processes stem from which reason for government legislation of business? a. To protect companies from each other. b. To protect consumers from unfair business practices. c. To protect the interests of society. d. To protect businesses from unfair consumer demands. 18. One of the most common problems with using internal database information is that: a. since it was probably collected for some other purpose, it may be incomplete or wrong. b. it is usually expensive to retrieve. c. top executives are usually unwilling to relinquish data, therefore, the data has limits. d. the data is almost always unsecured and, therefore, suspect as to reliability.

19. All of the following are thought to be sources of new product ideas EXCEPT:
a. internal sources. c. competitors. d. b. customers. the local library.

20. Each salesperson is assigned to an exclusive area in which to sell the company's full line of products or services in which type of sales force structure? a. Territorial sales force. b. Product sales force. c. Customer sales force. d. Hybrid sales force. ANSWERS FOR MCQs

1-d 2-a 3-a 4-b 11-d 12-d 13-d 14c

5-a 6-b 7-c 15-b 16-d 17c

8-b 9-b 10-c 18-a 19-d 20-a

PRACTICE QUESTIONS-3 1 The traditional Marketing style involves a Telemarketing b Indirect marketing c Direct marketing (c)

2 Modern methods of Marketing included ( e) a Publicity on the net b Tele Marketing c Business through e-mail. d Advt on the net e all the above 3 A lead means (a) a a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's Product b company c farmer 4 A call means a calling on friends b to take telephone calls c calling on prospective customers. (c)

5 Cross selling means (b) a identifying customers needs b matching the products to customers needs c convincing the customers 6 Innovation means (c) a inspiration b additional perquisites c implementing new ideas / methods 7 A true marketing mindset requires (a) a active mindset b Passive mindset

c controlled mindset

8 Sales forecasting involves (d) a sales planning and pricing b distribution of channels c Consumer tastes d all the above 9 A target market is (c) a entire country b entire city c that which consists of customers who need the identified product 10 Marketing plan helps in (a) a better lead generation b better customers service c better systems 11 Market information means (c)

a knowledge of shops b knowledge of places c knowledge of customer profile and product mix 12 For effective marketing, the sales man should have which of these qualities (d) a Creativity b team spirit and motivation c effective communication skills d all the above 13 Which Indian Company has the largest market capitalization a ONGC b Reliance c Infosys d Satyam 14 What market philosophy best expresses laissez faire a Fiscal restraint b priming the pump c caveat emptor d supply and demand (a) (b) (c)

15 The concept that consumers will favour those products which offer maximum quality performance and features and asks for continuous product improvement is a marketing concept b product concept c production concept 16 Sales Promotion (a) a A must for competitive advantage b compulsory c waste of time 17 Oligopoly is a market organisation in which there are a no sellers b few buyers c few sellers 18 In monopoly there are (b) a are few sellers b is one seller c are many sellers 19 "A monopolist is a market with one seller" is given by a P C Dooley b A J Braff c Letwitch Observes 20 Which of the following is not the factors of production a land b labour c capital d entrepreneur 21 A leader may be manager but a manager need not be a leader (a) a True b False c None of the above 22 Money market is market for a long term loans b short loans c medium term loans 23 Market with one buyer and one seller a monopoly b bi monopoly c bilateral 24 Marketing management is a term ______ than sales management a wider b narrower c equal 25 Promoting mix includes (a) a advertising, publicity, personal selling and promotion b physical attributes, branch package and product life cycle c Brand name, product benefits, credit delivery 26 The systematic gathering and analyzing of data on a particular marketing problem is a promotional research b marketing information c marketing research 27 A pricing strategy aimed at paying current or past due bills is a survival pricing b brand pricing c status quo pricing 28 Marketing provides maximum satisfaction of a profits b human wants c none of the above 29 Moral advertising is also known as a outdoor advertising b direct mail advertising c both a and b 30 LIC agent is an example of a Two level marketing b Three level marketing c direct marketing

(c)

(a) (d)

(b) (a) (a)

(c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (b) (b)

31 Marketing manager may be classified in the category of a top level management b middle level management c lower level management 32 Selling costs are found under a monopoly b monopolistic competition c oligopoly

33 Product differentiation is an important characteristic of (c) a perfect market b imperfect market c monopolistic competition 34 Many firms producing homogeneous products can be generally treated as a perfect competition b bilateral monopoly c oligopoly (a)

35 _____ means giving a name to a product so as to distinguish it from others a grading b branding c promotion 36 Who coined the expression of marketing mix a Adam Smith b James Culliton c Peter F Drucker 37 " With you all the Way" is the slogan of a Bank of India b Union Bank of India c State Bank of India 38 In which promotion is necessary (c) a introduction b growth c decline 39 MRP stands for (c) a management Resource planning b Marketing research planning c Manufacturing resource planning 40 Customer satisfying process is the view (b) a selling b marketing c both 41 "A coloured or crooked perception of marketing and short-sightedness about business is a marketing myopia b marketing mix c product concept 42 In an organisaiton which department plays key role a HR Dept b Finance Dept c Marketing dept 43 Revenue generating dept in an organisation a marketing dept b Finance dept c none of these 44 PLC stands for (b) a Product Life Cycle b Product Launching Cycle c None of these 45 Marketing planning concerned with a Planning sales force size and deployment

(b) (b) (c)

(a)

(c) (a)

(a) b Planning consignment sales

46 Marketing is an ongoing process (a) a Planning and execution of marketing mix b Selling in the market 47 The best way of improving the business is a win over the customer b advertisement (a) c increasing the no. of products (c)

48 One of the shortest definitions of marketing is a advertisement b range of products c meeting needs profitably

49 A successful manage is one who (d) a maximize staff productivity b bring down overheads c market driven profit conscious and customer obsessed culture d all the above

50 To remain vibrant in the turbulent marketing field one should have the ability of ---forecasting, emerging customer expectations and how best they can be satisfied on an ongoing basis. 51 The earlier concept of customers " save and buy" gradually shifted to "buy and repay" 52 The main focus of selling is on product, where as in marketing the focus is on the buyer and his specific needs. 53 One of the aims of marketing is to make available the products a at right place b at right time c at right price d all the above 53 .Every product will pass through the life cycle of a birth b growth c saturation d decline e all the above (d) (e)

54 The various components of promotion in achieving marketing objectives is (e) a advertising b publicity c sales promotion d personal selling e all the above PRACTICE QUESTIONS-4 1 A prospect means

a) b) c) d) e) 2

any customer who walks into the bank an employee of the bank a customer who is likely to be interested in bank's product or service a depositor of the bank' a borrower of the bank

A lead means a) b) c) d) e) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's product a political leader a religious leader a bank chairman None of these

Innovation means a) Compensation b) inspiration c) additional perquisites d) implementing new ideas or new methods e) None of these A Call means a) calling on friends b) calling on bank employees c) calling on prospective customers d) to make telephone calls e) calling on relatives The Traditional Marketing style involves a) Telemarketing b) Digital Marketing c) Indirect Marketing d) Direct Marketing e) All of these Modern Method of Marketing include a) Publicity on the net b) Advertisement on the net c) Soliciting business through e-mails d) Tele marketing e) All of these A true marketing requires a) Command and other mindset b) Control Mindset c) Passive mindset d) Active mindset e) None of these Which of the following sentences is true? a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers' Market b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers's market c) Marketing is not required due to competition d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities? a) Creativity b) Team spirit c) Motivation d) Effective communication skills e) All of these Market information means a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars b) Knowledge of shopping malls c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix d) knowledge of various languages e) None of these Market Research is needed for a) checking the market area b) checking the right product to be sold c) making proper marketing decisions d) deciding right time to sell e) All of these Which of the following statement is true

10

11

12

a) b) c) d) e) 13

Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses Marketing is not required in profit making companies Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees Marketing is a time bound seasonal function Marketing is a waste of time

Marketing plan helps in a) better lead generation b) better systems c) better results d) improved balance sheet e) better customer service If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required? a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Market Research d) Market Segmentation e) None of these Motivation means a) Inspiring employees to perform better b) Better communication skills c) Sales Coaching d) Market Research e) None of these In a Selling Process in today's world? a) b) c) d) e) Only standard products are sold No customization required the seller need not have product knowledge the seller should aim at customer satisfaction only quantum of sales matters

14

15

16

17

Find the true statement a) Marketing is a waste of the employees's time b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population c) Marketing involves additional work d) Marketing involves team work e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement A Target market is a) entire country b) entire city c) entire globe d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product e) all of these Sales forecasting involves a) Sales Planning b) Sales Pricing c) Distribution Channels d) Consumer tastes e) All of these Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC a) Shirts b) Ties c) Both A and B d) Liberty e) SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by a) DCM b) Maruti c) Premier Automobiles d) Hyundai With you all the way is the slogan of a) Vodafone b) SBI c) ICICI d) Raymonds Which company used the slogan "The complete Man"

18

19

20

21

22

23

a) b) c) d) 24

DCM GRASIM RAYMONDS VIMAL

Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes? a) Cavenders b) Four Square c) Red & White d) Wills Cross Selling means a) Identifying customer needs b) matching the products to customer needs c) convincing the customers of product benefits d) responding to questions and objections of customers e) all of these

25

ANSWERS
1 (C) 6 (E) 11 (E) 16 (D) 21 (B) 2 (A) 7 (D) 12 (C) 17 (D) 22 (B) 3 (D) 8 (B) 13 ( C) 18 (D) 23 (C) 4 ( C) 9 (E) 14 (B) 19 (E) 24 (D) 5 (D) 10 (C ) 15 (A) 20 (C) 25 (E)

MODEL QUESTIONS ON - MARKETING FOR CLERICAL EXAMINATION - 2008

SBI CLERICAL RECRUITMENT, 2008 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON COMPUTER AWARENESS PAPER-1 2008 1. RDBMS stands for _____ a) Relational Database Management System b) Rational Development of Bank Management Software c) Regulation of Data Base & Management Structure d) None of the above 2. The efficiency of a computer in terms of speed depends on : a) size of the system unit b) capacity of hard disk c) The processor d) the size of the server 2. ROM stands for : a) Random Only Memory c) Read Only Memory 3. I Kilobyte equals ____ bytes. a) 1000 b) 1024 b) Readable Only Memory d) Random Other Memory c) 100 d) 1008

4. Data transfer rate in computers is measured in _____________. a) Bauds b) MBPS c) Bytes d) bits per seconds 5. Internet banking site of State Bank of India is certified by _________ for security. a) Verisign b) TCS c) Sify d) Wipro 6. ISP stands for ; a) Internet Service Product c) Internet Source Product b) Internet Service Provider d) Internet Source Power

7. The National Financial Switch (NFS) promoted by IDBRT relates to : a) ATM connectivity among banks b) Single financial software for all banks c) Internet banking connectivity d) Networked foreign exchange facility 8. Cheque truncation refers to the process by which : a) cheques are returned to customers after payment b) entry of stopped cheques into the computer system c) cheques payable at different cities / branches d) physical movement of cheques is curtailed, being replaced by electronic records of their content

9. Which of the following is an advantage of using a Local Area Network (LAN)? a) Protects against virus infection b) Provides central storage and processing to a group of users c) Provides programme integrity from unauthorized changes d) Protects against improper disclosure of data 10. A virus is a : a) A program which causes problems in a computer b) A device introduced in a software package to steal data c) Damage caused to components of a computer due to dust, contamination etc. d) A routine introduced into a computer program, which when activated, produces unwanted results, and spreads infection from one disk to another 11. A password is a : a) A device for using computer software packages b) A method of using computers c) A group of characters required to be input correctly when demanded by a computer package, before it will allow access to the user d) None of the above 12. What does a bug in a computer system mean? a) A virus infection b) Problem in booting a computer c) Problems caused by insects getting inside the CPU d) Mistake in a program or error in the working of a computer 13. The Information Technology Act, 2000 does not provide for : a) legal recognition for transactions carried out by electronically b) retention of documents in electronic form c) filing and submission of documents with Government agencies d) purchase of immovable properties online 14. The first public sector bank in India to use cheque truncation system is a) Bank of Baroda b) Punjab National Bank c) ICICI Bank 15. Real Time Gross Settlement is a payment system which : a) Operates on the basis of net settlement of funds between banks b) Is only for inter-bank transactions c) Is for both inter-bank, customer- to- bank and bank-to-customer Transactions d) Has replaced the SEFT 16. Disaster Recovery Plan is : a) A plan drawn up to be used when computer systems fail b) A pre-determined blueprint to be used for resuming any critical business function within a defined time frame, minimizing loss in response to any disaster c) The procedure of taking back-up of branch data and storing the same in off-site locations d) SBI

d) Prepared to deal with natural disasters only 17. The various types of biometric technology used are ; a) Hand geometry system b) Voice recognition technology c) Fingerprint technology d) All the above 18. WAP stands for : a) Wide Area Procedure c) Wireless Access Product b) Wireless Application Protocol d) Web-based Application Protocol

19. Global Link Services is a a) A communications hub for routing forex transactions between our branches and foreign offices b) An agency for routing remittances from USA and Gulf countries to India c) An intra-net connecting our foreign offices with FD, Kolkata d) A software for reconciling our forex transactions on a real-time basis 21. RABMN stands for : a) Remote Area Business Message Network b) Remote Area Business Management Network c) Regional Area Bank Management Network d) Regional Area Bank Messenger Network 22. National Informatics Centre (NICNET) network provides service to : a) Banks b) Government departments c) Govt. departments & banks d) Banks & RBI 23. Server is a a) Multimedia kit c) Multi-user computer 24.

b) Personal computer d) none of the above

What is Internet ? a) Network of all branch computers c) Global network of computers

b) SBIs computer network d) none of the above

25.

RAM stands for a) Rapid Action Memory b) Relational Access Memory c) Rotational Access Memory d) Random Access Memory Primary memory is a) Permanent c) Partly permanent and partly temporary Secondary memory is a) Permanent c) Partly permanent and partly temporary

26.

b) temporary d) none of the above

27.

b) Temporary d) None of the above

28.

Windows' is a(an) .. software. a) Operating system b) Application software c) Language d) None of the above DOS stands for ? a) Disk operation system c) Disk operating system GUI stands for ? a) Graphic User Internet c) Graph User Interface

29.

b) Data operation system d) Data operating system

30.

b)

Graphic Use Internet d) Graphic User Interface

31.

Worlds first computer was called a) LINUX (b) ENIAC (c) PENTIUM

(d) MICROSOFT

32.

1GB is equal to ______ a) 1024 Bytes b)1024 X 1024 Bytes c) 1024 X 1024 X 1024 Bytes d) 1024 X 1024 X 1024 X 1024 Bytes Which of the following is not a DOS command? a) Edit b) Copy c) Cut We can use MS Excel for ______ a) Letter Writing b) Spread sheet calculation c) Presentation d) Painting CPU stands for ______ a) Central Processing Unit c) Central Production Unit VDU stands for _______ a) Visual data unit c) Visual display unit Mouse is a/an? a) Output device c) Storing device

33.

d) MD

34.

35.

b) Control Processing Unit d) Central Projection Unit

36.

b) Verify data unit d)Verify display Unit

37.

b) Input device d) Printing device

38.

Which is an Input as well as Output device? a) Monitor b) Printer c) Floppy Disk drive

d) Scanner

39.

How many columns & rows an MS Excel worksheet contain ? a) 265 / 64436 c) 265 / 66536 b) 256 / 65365 d) 256 / 65536

40.

Booting in Computer means? a) Covering the computer c) Starting of computer b) Switching off the computer d) None of the above

41.

Committee on Mechanisation in Banking industry was headed by a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh b) Dr. C. Rangarajan c) M.S. Ahluwalia d) Dr. Y.V. Reddy The integration of multiple technologies of a Depository, Participant, Bank, and Stock Exchange Interface is done through: a) e-banking b) e-mail c) e-broking d) e- commerce State of the art is used to denote _____ in computer technology. a) The Best b) Up to date c) Good looking d) Superior Calculations like addition, subtraction, comparison etc., are done in ____ a) Memory b) CPU c) Monitor d) HDD Web casting is _____ a) Transmission of audio/video on the interner b) Casting a movie on the internet c) Searching something on web d) Listening to music through internet Modem is used for _____

42.

43. 44. 45.

46.

a) Data encryption / decryption b) Conversion of data into voice and vice-versa c) Conversion of analog signals to digital signals and vice-versa d) Transmission of audio visual signals through cables 47. Fibre optic cables are used for networking because ___ a) they have high bandwidth b) they are thin and light in weight c) they are not affected by electro-magnetic interferences, power surges etc. d) all of these Firewall is used in communication system to save from ____ a) Data driven attack b) Fire accidents c) Unauthorised attack d) Virus attack A compiler in computer terminology is _____ a) A software package b) System Software c) A process of compiling data d) Application Software Database Management Systems (DBMS) comprise data in tabular form with rows and columns. The rows are called ______ and columns are called ______ a) Fields / Records b) Records / Fields c) Fields / Ranges d) Records / Ranges ANSWERS 1 11 21 31 41 a d a b b 2 12 22 32 42 b c c c c 3 13 23 33 43 c d c c b 4 14 24 34 44 b d c b b 5 15 25 35 45 b b d a a 6 16 26 36 46 a c b c c 7 17 27 37 47 b a a b d 8 18 28 38 48 a d a a c 9 19 29 39 49 d b c d b 10 20 30 40 50 b a d c b

48.

49.

50.

SBI CLERICAL RECRUITMENT, 2008 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON COMPUTER AWARENESS PAPER-2 1. Logarithm tables were developed by 1) Blaise Pascal 2) John Napier 3) William 4) Charles Babbage 2. Who of the following is regarded as Father of Modern Computer? 1) Blaise Pascal 2) John Napier 3) William 4) Charles Babbage 3. Punched Card was invented in 1801 by 1) Blaise Pascal 2) Herman Hollerith 3) Howard Alken 4) Joseph Jaquard 4. The first business-oriented computer developed in 1952 and used by US Bureau of Census was 1) UNIVAC-1 2) ENIAC 3) Colossus 4) ENIGMA 5. Vacuum tube is a _____

1) A glass tube that creates 2) A fragile glass device that can control vacuum while transmitting and amplify electronic signals signals 3) A synthetic tube used to 4) A protective tube used for safecreate vacuum while working keeping computers while not in use in on computers earlier days 6. Second generation computers used ______ technology. 1) Vacuum tubes 2) LSIC 3) Transistors 4) VLSIC 7. Speed of computers in third generation was measured in 1) Milli-seconds 2) Nano-seconds 3) Micro-seconds 4) Seconds 8. Hybrid computers are used in which of the following works? 1) Launching a rocket 2) Preparation of salaries 3) Banking operations 4) Insurance operations 9. The numbering system used by todays computers is called _____. 1) Serial system 2) Binary system 3) Random system 4) Decimal System 10. The base of numbering system is called _____. 1) Superscript 2) Base 3) Subscript 4) Radix 11. The power on position is represented by _____. 1) 1 2) 0 3) Both 1 and 0 4) Any of 1 and 0 12. Binary equivalent of 30 (decimal number) is _____. 1) 11111 2) 11110 3) 11011 4) 10111 13. What is the decimal equivalent number for the binary number 1110010? 1) 115 2) 111 3) 114 4) 112 14. In hexa-decimal system the 26 (decimal equivalent) is denoted by ____. 1) 1A 2) 1B 3) 1E 4) 1F 15. Octal number system is also known as ______ system. 1) Base-2 2) Base-10 3) Base-8 4) Base-16 16. A binary digit (0 or 1) that a computer understands is called _____. 1) Kilo Byte 2) Bit 3) Mega Byte 4) Byte 17. The standard by which all characters are represented by a combination of binary digits all over the world is called _____. 1) ASCII 2) ACSII 3) AMFI 4) AISCI 18. BCD stands for _____. 1) Binary Coded Decimal 3) Binary Coded Division 2) Binary Combined Decimal 4) Binary Coded Distribution

19. 1 Gigabyte is equal to _____ Mega Bytes. 1) 1000 2) 1028 3) 1024 4) 1073741824

20. The physical components of a computer are called _____. 1) Software 2) Hardcore 3) Devices 4) Hardware 21. The user can provide data to the computer with the help of _____. 1) Processors 2) Input Devices 3) Storage devices 4) Output Devices 22. Printer is ______ device. 1) Output 3) Storage 2) Input 4) Processing

23. CPU, also known as the heart of the computer, stands for _____. 1) Central Processing Unit 2) Control Processing Unit 3) Central Programming Unit 4) Control Programming Unit 24. Which of the following secondary storage devices can store more volume of data? 1) Floppy 2) CD 3) DVD 4) DAT 25. Set of programme(s) developed to control the operation of computer system is known as _____ 1) Operational programmes 2) System software 3) Application Software 4) Control system software 26. Which of the following is NOT an Operating System? 1) Windows 2) MS-DOS 3) MS-Office 4) Unix 27. The command used to place a file in one directory into another directory is ____. 1) Copy 2) Move 3) Ren 4) Find 28. The character that can represent one or more characters in a file name is known as ____. 1) Representing character 2) Asterisk 3) Question Mark 4) Wild character 29. The small pictures seen on the desktop of a computer are known as ___ 1) Icons 2) Ions 3) Pictures 4) Graphics 30. _____company has developed the popular Windows operating system? 1) Microsoft 2) Sun Micro Systems 3) Infosys 4) Oracle Corporation 31. The process of loading the operating system and other programmes when the computer is switched on is known as _____. 1) Loading 2) Booting 3) Opening 4) Shooting 32. The unit of stored data or programmes is known as _____. 1) Directory 2) Folder 3) Disk 4) File 33. The minimise, maximize, close buttons are seen in _____. 1) Task Bar 2) Menu Bar 3) Title Bar 4) Tool Bar

34. Keyboard shortcut keys used to select entire data in an open file are ___. 1) Ctrl + A 2) Ctrl + C 3) Ctrl + X 4) Ctrl + V 35. Cut, copy, paste options are available in _____ menu? 1) View 2) File 3) Edit 4) Format 36. The utility used to check hard disk for logical and physical errors is ____ 1) Disk Defragmentor 2) Disk clean 3) Check disk 4) Scan disk 37. The word processor utility provided by Windows operating system is _____. 1) Notepad 2) Wordpad 3) MS Word 4) Wordlord 38. Which of the following is not a computer language? 1) BASIC 2) COBOL 3) FORTRAN 4) MS-Word 39. COBOL stands for ____. 1) Common Business Oriented Language 3) Common Object and Business Oriented Language 2) Complete Business Oriented Language 4) Complete Office and Business Operating Language

40. The application software that helps to search, view and read websites on the web/internet is known as _____. 1) Explorer 2) Navigator 3) Browser 4) URL 41. Which of the following is a famous search engine? 1) Google 2) Yahoo 3) Alta Vista 4) All of these 42. The smallest unit of data is _____. 1) Record 2) Data 3) Field 4) File 43. The single organized collection of instructed data stored with a minimum of duplication of data items is known as _____. 1) File 2) Database 3) Structure 4) Folder 44. Which of the following is an RDBMS that is used in our Bank? 1) Oracle 2) Sybase 3) Ingress 4) SQL 45. In MS-Word, most frequently used options are placed as icons in ____ tool bar. 1) Formatting 2) Standard 3) Title 4) Menu 46. The facility available in MS-Word to prepare and send a letter to multiple recipients is _____. 1) Insert 2) Table 3) Email 4) Mailmerge 47. The option available in MS Word to automatically number the paragraphs or place special characters before the paragraphs is ____. 1) Boarders and shading 2) Bullets and numbering 3) Styles and formatting 4) Auto formatting

48. Key board short cut to move to the end of document is ___ 1) Ctrl + End 2) Ctrl + Home 3) Ctrl + Alt + Home 4) Ctrl + Alt + End 49. A series of commands which can be grouped together as a single command is known as _____. 1) Template 2) Wizard 3) Micro 4) Macro 50. _____ is the connection between two documents or parts of same document and is commonly used in internet sites. 1) Key link 2) Hyperlink 3) Connector 4) WWW 51. How many types of alignments are available in MS-Word? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 52. The intersection of row and column is known as _____ in spreadsheet. 1) Cell 2) Field 3) Dataset 4) Source 53. The file created in MS-Excel is generally known as ____. 1) Worksheet 2) Workbook 3) Excel book 4) Excel sheet 54. To enter a formula in a cell, the sign to be used at the beginning of the formula is ____. 1) @ 2) ! 3) = 4) % 55. When you know the desired result of a single formula but not the input value the formula needs to determine the result, you can use the _____ feature in MS-Excel. 1) Auto calculate 2) Solver 3) Goal seek 4) Scenario 56. An interactive table that quickly combines and compares large amounts of data is known as ______. 1) Pivot Table 2) Combination table 3) Interactive table 4) Comparative table 57. _____ is a quick and easy way to find and work with a subset of data (list) on the work sheet without rearranging the data. 1) Managing 2) Sorting 3) Validating 4) Filtering 58. The file extension of an Excel file is ____. 1) Xls 2) Xml 3) Xcl 4) Xel 59. C, C++, Java, Basic etc., are known as 1) High Level Languages 2) Low level languages 3) Machine languages 4) Assembly languages 60. Which of the following is an anti-virus software. 1) Symantec 2) McAfee 3) Nortan Anti Virus 4) All the above 61. The following key standards / technologies are used for e-commerce. 1) Technical Data Interchange 2) Electronic Data Interchange

3) Hyper Text Markup Language

4) Extensible Markup Language

62. Which of the following is a standard code used for exchange of information among dat processing and communication system? 1) ANSI 2) ASCII 3) RDBMS 4) DBMS 63. The vast network of computers that connects millions of people across the globe is known as ___ 1) LAN 2) WAN 3) WEB 4) Internet 64. Windows is and example of ____ 1) GUI 3) Touch methodology 2) CUI 4) None of these

65. In windows, the following system utility is used to delete unnecessary/ temporary files from the disk. 1) Clean Up 2) Disk Clean up 3) Disk Defragmenter 4) Format 66. IBM is ___ 1) A Computer language 3) A Computer manufacturing company 67. Todays computers use _____ 1) Core memory 3) Both 1 & 2 2) A software company 4) A hardware assembling unit

2) Semi-conductor memory 4) Memory not at all used

68. When a programme is written in machine language, it is called ____ 1) Source programme 2) Object programme 3) Machine programme 4) Compiler 69. Which of the e following devices is known as sillicosapiens? 1) Computer 2) Key board 3) Monitor 4) Mouse 70. The next generation super computer to be developed by CDAC in the Param series is 1) Param Super 2) Param 1000 3) Param 10000 4) Param 8800 71. Pascal is a _____ 1) Computer scientist 3) Scale used to measure data 72. A browser is _____. 1) Software program specially developed for viewing web pages in internet 3) A component used to protect the computer from powersurges 73. Bandwidth refers to ____ 1) The amount of information that can be stored in a peerto-peer network 3) The amount of information that a communication medium can transfer in a specified time 2) Computer language 4) A hardware component in CPU 2) Help available in a software programme 4) A storage system used in some operating systems

2) The cable used to connect computers in a LAN 4) The width of cables used to connect various components in CPU

74. ________ is a primary key of one file that also appears in another file. 1) Primary Key 2) Secondary Key 3) Physical key 4) Foreign key 75. _______ is the process of study to find out errors, if any, in an algorithm. 1) Testing 2) Debugging 3) Checking 4) Processing ANSWERS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 1 2 3 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 1 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 2 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 1 3 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 1 4 2 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 4 1 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 4 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 2 1 3 4 2

TECHNOLOGY : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who is known as father of computers] b) Lord Wellington b) Charles Babbage c) Jack Kilby d) Bill Gates

2. The first calculating machine invented by man as early as 1000 BC is called a) Abadus b) Computer [ ] c) Abacus d) Type Coder 3. Commercial use of mechanical computers was first started by ] a) Herman Hollerith b) Michel Piterson c) Isac Newton d) Augustine Rudefold [

4. In the first generation computers (1945 -56) ______ was used for calculations [ ] a) Transistors b)Vacuum Tubes c) Integrated Circuits d) Very Large Scale integration 5. In the second generation computers (1956-63) ______ was used for calculations

a) Transistors ] c) Integrated Circuits

b)Vacuum Tubes d) Very Large Scale integration

6. In the third generation computers (1964-71) ______ was used for calculations a) Transistors ] c) Integrated Circuits b)Vacuum Tubes d) Very Large Scale integration [

7. In the fourth generation computers (1972 onwards) ______ was used for calculations a) Transistors ] c) Integrated Circuits b)Vacuum Tubes d) Very Large Scale integration [

8. Which was the most commonly used second generation computer in business a) IBM 1400 [ ] b) IBM 1401 c) IBM 1410 d) IBM 1411 9. Who has developed Integrated Circuit (IC) in the year 1958? a) Lord Wellington b) Charles Babbage ] c) Jack Kilby d) Bill Gates [

10. First Personal Computer (P.C.) was introduced by IBM for use in homes, offices and schools in the year____? [ ] a) 1970 b) 1971 c) 1980 d) 1981 11. Which of the following is not a integral part of computer a) CPU b) UPS ] c) Mouse d) Monitor [

12. The CPU, the monitor, Keyboard, Mouse, printer, speakers comprises ____ a) Computer Hardware [ ] b) Computer software c) Computer Motherboard d) Chips 13. Motherboard is an integral part of _______________ ] a) Central Processing Unit (CPU) b) Monitor c) Keyboard d) Mouse [

14. The programme that is installed on the computer to perform certain types of activities is called _____ [ ] a) The Operating System b) Software c) Hardware d) Calculator 15. The instructions given to the computer with the help of mouse or keyboard is called as ____ [ ] a) Insert b) Instructions c) Output d) Input 16. ROM stands for ] a) Read Only Memory b) Read Other Memory c) Remote Only Memory d) Recall Our Memory 17. ________ referred as a brain of the computer. ] a) Monitor b) Keyboard c) CPU d) Mouse 18. RAM stands for ] a) Random Access Memory b) Real Access Memory c) Random Alternative Memory d) State Bank Encashment & Payment System 19. In computer we get output with the help of ] a) Keyboard b) Mouse c) CPU d) Monitor [

20. ______ is used for sending and receiving data from and to other computers around the world through telephone lines [ ] a) Inverter b) Modem c) Cable-net d) Datapro 21. DOS can handles __ characters as a command or name of the file [ ] a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 22. Disk Operating System was originally designed by ] a) TCS b) Hewlett Packard c) John Macllay d) Tim Patterson [

23. The popular operating system is ] a) Windows b) DOS c) LINUX d) None of the above 24. The user has to type command as C:\> normally called as ] a) DOS Programme b) DOS Prompt c) DOS Network d) DOS Base

25. Biggest drawback of DOS is [ ] a) User has to type commands and remember b) User has to use mouse c) User has to rely on others d) User has no choice 26. Windows has full of icons on screen are referred as ] a) Activities b) Icons c) Graphic User Interface d) Microsoft Window 27. Worlds first computer was called ] a) LINUX b) ENIAC c) PENTIUM d) MICROSOFT 28. State Bank computer centre is at ] a) Hyderabad b) Navi Mumbai c) Chennai d) New Delhi 29. The efficiency of a Computer in terms of speed depends upon ] a) DATA Transmission b) Bytes of Computer c) VSAT d) Micro Processor 30. Bit is a ] a) Binary digit "1" and "0" c) Binary digit "0" [

[ b) Binary digit "1" d) Binary digit "1" and "10"

31. Byte is a ____? [ ] a) Group of eight binary digits used to represent one nit of data b) Group of sixteen binary digits used to represent one nit of data c) Group of ten binary digits used to represent one nit of data d) Group of twenty binary digits used to represent one nit of data 32. The Number System based on two digits "0" and "1" is known as a) Binary System [ ] b) Barter System c) Number System d) None of these 33. DOS referred to ] a) Disk Originating System [

b) Disk Operating System c) Data Originating System d) Disk Originating Software 34. UPS stands for ] a) United Power Solutions c) Uninterrupted Power Solution [ b) Uninterrupted Power Supply d) United Power Supply

35. As per system security policy of the bank, it is desirable to change your password at least once in ___ days. a) 30 b) 60 [ ] c) 90 d) 120 36. Central Processing unit (CPU) comprises of: ] [

a) arithmetic unit and Control Unit b) Logical unit and Control Unit c) Arithmetic logic unit and Control unit d) None of the above 37. HOT KEY refers to ] a) The key which appears to be hot c) The letter which is bold underlined [ b) Mouse pointer d) The letter which is

38. While using hot key we have to keep pressed_____ key [ ] a) Ctrl b) Shift c) Alt d) Space Bar 39. Every time when we install new software we have to __________.[ ] a) Reload the computer b) Restart the computer c) Rearrange the software d) None of the above 40. Recycle Bin is a ] a) Folder on desktop c) Folder in my computer [ b) File on a desktop c) File in my computer

KEY: TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. c 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. d 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. d 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. b

10. d

20. b

30. a

40. a

QUESTION PAPER : WINDOWS 1. GUI stands for? (a) Geographical User Interface (b) Geological User Interface (c) Graphical User Interface (d) None of these Small pictures appearing on Desktop are called as____? (a) Photos (b) Icons (c) Pictures (d) e-cons Start button on the desktop is placed on _______ bar (a) Task (b) Scroll (c) Menu (d) None of these Right click of mouse is used to get_______ a) Open the icon b) shortcut menu options c) Close the icon d) None of the above

2.

3.

4.

5. To insert a letter or text by replacing existing one we have to use _____ button from keyboard (a) Delete (b) Insert (c) Ctrl+Delete (d) Ctrl+Insert 6. Initial procedure when computer starts is known as? (a) Booting (b) Starting (c) Tasking (d) Programming Operating system is a _____? (a) Application software (c) Application hardware (b) Computer Language (d) System Software

7.

8.

Running computer without operating system is______ (a) Impossible (b) Sometime possible (c) Possible (d) None of the above To go to the beginning of the document ______ command can be used: (a) Ctrl+Home (b) Alt+Home (c) Ctrl+End (d) Ctrl+Delete

9.

10. To go to the end of the document ______ command can be used:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Ctrl+Home Alt+Home Ctrl+End Ctrl+Delete

11. To get all capital letters while typing we have to ________. a) Keep Ctrl button pressed b) keep caps lock on c) Keep caps lock off d) None of the above 12. Typed matter/document is to be saved in_____. (a) Folder (b) File (c) Hard disk (d) CD- ROM 13. Folder may contain: (a) Files and sub folders (b) Only files. (c) Only sub folders. (d) None of the above. 14. To copy selected matter from one place to another _____ key option may be used a) Ctrl+S b) Ctrl+P c) Ctrl+V d) Ctrl+C 15. To paste copied matter from one place to another _____ key option may be used (a) Ctrl+S (c) Ctrl+V (b) Ctrl+P (d) Ctrl+X

16. In "MS Word" MS stands for (a) Master Server (c) Microsoft (b) Micro Service (d) Mega Series

17. _______ stores the text, picture, graphics for temporarily (a) Hard disk (c) Clipboard (b) CD (d) Pen drive

18. Which of the following is not operating system a) Windows 95 b) Windows 98 c) Windows 96 d) Windows 2000 19. _______ plays as interface between user and computer hardware (a) Mouse (b) Keyboard

(c) Operating System

(d) Internet

20. Which of the following is not a computer language a) C++ b) Lotus 123 c) Oracle d) Microsoft 21. Double click of mouse is used to___ (a) Close file/folder (b) Open file/folder (c) Remove file/folder (d) Delete file/folder 22. Back space key on the keyboard is used for____ (a) Deleting text towards right side of curser (b) Deleting text towards left side of curser (c) Inserting text towards right side of curser (d) Inserting text towards left side of curser 23. Task bar can be placed at_____ : (a) Bottom of the screen only (b) Right side of the screen only (c) Any side of screen (d) Bottom and Top side of screen only

24. Last 15 documents opened can be viewed with the ____ option of start button (a) Programmes (b) Documents (c) Setting (d) Search 25. Recently used menus will appear on ________ as shortcut keys : (a) Task Bar (b) Menu Bar (c) Standard tool bar (d) None of the above 26. While typing right hand side number keys of the key board can be used provided______ : (a) Num Lock button is on (b) Caps Lock button is on (c) Num Lock button is off (d) None of the above 27. To find saved file from the computer we may use ______ option from start button (a) Document (b) Help and Support (c) Search (d) Run

28. When any file or folder is deleted, it will be parked in ______ of the computer a) Memory Bin b) Recycle Bin c) My computer d) None of the above 29. The activity of inter-linking of different networks is known as ______? (a) LAN (b) Internet (c) Homepage (d) None of the above 30. Background screen of window is called as_____. (a) Desktop. (b) Windows environment (c) Windows application. (d) None of these.

Key: Question paper: Windows

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

c b a b b a a a a c

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

b b a d c c c c c d

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

b b c b c a c b b a

QUESTIONS ON TECHNOLOGY 1. Logarithm tables were developed by 1) Blaise Pascal 2) John Napier 3) William 4) Charles Babbage 2. Who of the following is regarded as Father of Modern Computer? 1) Blaise Pascal 2) John Napier 3) William 4) Charles Babbage 3. Punched Card was invented in 1801 by 1) Blaise Pascal 2) Herman Hollerith 3) Howard Alken 4) Joseph Jaquard 4. The first business-oriented computer developed in 1952 and used by US Bureau of Census was 1) UNIVAC-1 2) ENIAC 3) Colossus 4) ENIGMA [ ]

5. Vacuum tube is a _____ [ 1) A glass tube that creates 2) A fragile glass device that can vacuum while transmitting control and amplify electronic signals signals 3) A synthetic tube used to create 4) A protective tube used for safevacuum while working on keeping computers while not in computers use in earlier days 6. Second generation computers used ______ technology. [

1) Vacuum tubes 3) Transistors

2) LSIC 4) VLSIC [ ]

7. Speed of computers in third generation was measured in 1) Milli-seconds 2) Nano-seconds 3) Micro-seconds 4) Seconds 8. Hybrid computers are used in which of the following works? 1) Launching a rocket 2) Preparation of salaries 3) Banking operations 4) Insurance operations 9. The numbering system used by todays computers is called _____. 1) Serial system 2) Binary system 3) Random system 4) Decimal System 10. The base of numbering system is called _____. 1) Superscript 2) Base 3) Subscript 4) Radix 11. The power on position is represented by _____. 1) 1 2) 0 3) Both 1 and 0 4) Any of 1 and 0 12. Binary equivalent of 30 (decimal number) is _____. 1) 11111 2) 11110 3) 11011 4) 10111 13. What is the decimal equivalent number for the binary number 1110010? 1) 115 2) 111 3) 114 4) 112 14. In hexa-decimal system the 26 (decimal equivalent) is denoted by ____. 1) 1A 2) 1B 3) 1E 4) 1F 15. Octal number system is also known as ______ system. 1) Base-2 2) Base-10 3) Base-8 4) Base-16 16. A binary digit (0 or 1) that a computer understands is called _____. 1) Kilo Byte 2) Bit 3) Mega Byte 4) Byte 17. The standard by which all characters are represented by a combination of binary digits all over the world is called _____. 1) ASCII 2) ACSII 3) AMFI 4) AISCI 18. BCD stands for _____. 1) Binary Coded Decimal 3) Binary Coded Division 2) Binary Combined Decimal 4) Binary Coded Distribution

19. 1 Gigabyte is equal to _____ Mega Bytes. 1) 1000 2) 1028 3) 1024 4) 1073741824 20. The physical components of a computer are called _____. 1) Software 2) Hardcore 3) Devices 4) Hardware 21. The user can provide data to the computer with the help of _____. 1) Processors 2) Input Devices 3) Storage devices 4) Output Devices

22. Printer is ______ device. 1) Output 3) Storage

[ 2) Input 4) Processing [

23. CPU, also known as the heart of the computer, stands for _____. 1) Central Processing Unit 2) Control Processing Unit 3) Central Programming Unit 4) Control Programming Unit

24. Which of the following secondary storage devices can store more volume [ of data? 1) Floppy 2) CD 3) DVD 4) DAT 25. Set of programme(s) developed to control the operation of computer [ system is known as _____ 1) Operational programmes 2) System software 3) Application Software 4) Control system software 26. Which of the following is NOT an Operating System? 1) Windows 2) MS-DOS 3) MS-Office 4) Unix [

27. The command used to place a file in one directory into another directory is [ ____. 1) Copy 2) Move 3) Ren 4) Find 28. The character that can represent one or more characters in a file name is known as ____. 1) Representing character 2) Asterisk 3) Question Mark 4) Wild character 29. The small pictures seen on the desktop of a computer are known as ___ 1) Icons 2) Ions 3) Pictures 4) Graphics 30. _____company has developed the popular Windows operating system? 1) Microsoft 2) Sun Micro Systems 3) Infosys 4) Oracle Corporation 31. The process of loading the operating system and other programmes when the computer is switched on is known as _____. 1) Loading 2) Booting 3) Opening 4) Shooting 32. The unit of stored data or programmes is known as _____. 1) Directory 2) Folder 3) Disk 4) File 33. The minimise, maximize, close buttons are seen in _____. 1) Task Bar 2) Menu Bar 3) Title Bar 4) Tool Bar 34. Keyboard shortcut keys used to select entire data in an open file are ___. 1) Ctrl + A 2) Ctrl + C 3) Ctrl + X 4) Ctrl + V 35. Cut, copy, paste options are available in _____ menu? 1) View 2) File 3) Edit 4) Format [

36. The utility used to check hard disk for logical and physical errors is ____ 1) Disk Defragmentor 2) Disk clean 3) Check disk 4) Scan disk

37. The word processor utility provided by Windows operating system is [ _____. 1) Notepad 2) Wordpad 3) MS Word 4) Wordlord 38. Which of the following is not a computer language? 1) BASIC 2) COBOL 3) FORTRAN 4) MS-Word 39. COBOL stands for ____. 1) Common Business Oriented Language 3) Common Object and Business Oriented Language 2) Complete Business Oriented Language 4) Complete Office and Business Operating Language [ [

40. The application software that helps to search, view and read websites on the web/internet is known as _____. 1) Explorer 2) Navigator 3) Browser 4) URL 41. Which of the following is a famous search engine? 1) Google 2) Yahoo 3) Alta Vista 4) All of these 42. The smallest unit of data is _____. 1) Record 3) Field 2) Data 4) File

43. The single organized collection of instructed data stored with a minimum of duplication of data items is known as _____. 1) File 2) Database 3) Structure 4) Folder 44. Which of the following is an RDBMS that is used in our Bank? 1) Oracle 2) Sybase 3) Ingress 4) SQL 45. In MS-Word, most frequently used options are placed as icons in ____ tool bar. 1) Formatting 2) Standard 3) Title 4) Menu

46. The facility available in MS-Word to prepare and send a letter to multiple [ recipients is _____. 1) Insert 2) Table 3) Email 4) Mailmerge 47. The option available in MS Word to automatically number the paragraphs [ or place special characters before the paragraphs is ____. 1) Boarders and shading 2) Bullets and numbering 3) Styles and formatting 4) Auto formatting 48. Key board short cut to move to the end of document is ___ 1) Ctrl + End 2) Ctrl + Home 3) Ctrl + Alt + Home 4) Ctrl + Alt + End 49. A series of commands which can be grouped together as a single command is known as _____. [

1) Template 3) Micro

2) Wizard 4) Macro ]

50. _____ is the connection between two documents or parts of same [ document and is commonly used in internet sites. 1) Key link 2) Hyperlink 3) Connector 4) WWW 51. How many types of alignments are available in MS-Word? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 52. The intersection of row and column is known as _____ in spreadsheet. 1) Cell 2) Field 3) Dataset 4) Source 53. The file created in MS-Excel is generally known as ____. 1) Worksheet 2) Workbook 3) Excel book 4) Excel sheet [

54. To enter a formula in a cell, the sign to be used at the beginning of the [ formula is ____. 1) @ 2) ! 3) = 4) % 55. When you know the desired result of a single formula but not the input [ value the formula needs to determine the result, you can use the _____ feature in MS-Excel. 1) Auto calculate 2) Solver 3) Goal seek 4) Scenario 56. An interactive table that quickly combines and compares large amounts of data is known as ______. 1) Pivot Table 2) Combination table 3) Interactive table 4) Comparative table [

57. _____ is a quick and easy way to find and work with a subset of data (list) [ on the work sheet without rearranging the data. 1) Managing 2) Sorting 3) Validating 4) Filtering 58. The file extension of an Excel file is ____. 1) Xls 2) Xml 3) Xcl 4) Xel 59. Central Data Centre (CDC) of Core Banking Department is situated at 1) Belapur, Navi Mumbai 2) Corporate Centre, Mumbai 3) New Delhi 4) Kolkata 60. The name of the anti-virus software used by SBI is _____. 1) Avast 2) McAfee 3) Nortan Anti Virus 4) Symantec ANSWERS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 2 4 4 1 2 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 1 2 3 1 3 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 2 1 1 3 2 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 2 4 3 1 3 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 4 3 2 1 2 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 4 1 2 3 3 [

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

3 2 1 2 4

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

2 1 1 3 4

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

3 2 4 1 1

36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

4 2 4 1 3

46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

4 2 1 4 2

56. 57. 58. 59. 60.

1 4 1 1 4

TEST OF REASONING 1

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFUSED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. Tennis 2. Hockey 3.Volleyball 4. Badminton 5.Cricket 3. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 395146728 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits with in the number are rearranged in ascending order from left to right? 1.None 2. One 3.Two 4. Three 5.More than three 4.in a certain code BEND is written as #5%3 and SOLD is written as 62@3. How is NOSE written in that code? 1.%265 2. 52%6 3.@265 4. %2#5 5. None of these 5. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters DEIV using each letter only once? 1.None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three 6.If Star is called Planet, Planet is called Satellite, Satellite is called Galaxy, Galaxy is called Comet then Earth is classified under which category? 1. G alaxy 2. Comet 3.Planet 4. Star 5. Satellite 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. Iron 2. Silver 3. Copper 4. Mercury 5. Aluminium

8. If the letters of the word VERTICAL are arranged alphabetically, how many letters will remain at the same position? 1.four 2. three 3.two 4. one 5. none of these 9. If in the number 589463271 all the odd digits are first arranged in ascending order and then all the even digits are arranged in ascending order which digit will be second to the right of fifth digit from the right end? 2.6 3.2 4.4 5. none of these 10. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the third, the sixth, the ninth and the tenth letters of the word PARENTHESIS using each letter only once, last letter of the word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is Y. 1.R 2.T 3.S 4.X 5.Y DIRECTIONS(11-15): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Eight friends P, R, T, V, W, J, F, and K are sitting around a circle facing the center. T is third to the right of F and second to the left of W, P and R are not neighbours of W. R is third to the right of K. J is between W and K. 11. Which of the following is the correct position of T with respect to K`s position? 1. Second to the left 2. Third to the left 3. Third to the right 4. Second to the right 5. None of these 12. Which of the following pairs has the first person to the immediate left of the second person? 1. RP 2. FJ 3.VT 4. JW 5. JK 13. Who is to the immediate right of F? 1. J 2. P 3. R 4. V 5. None of these 14. Which of the following is the correct position of V? 1. Second to the left of R 2. Between T and P 3. To the immediate right of W

4. To the immediate left of W 5. None of these 15. Who is second to the right of J? 1. F 2. V 3. W 4. P 5. None of these

DIRECTIONS( 16-20): In these questions the symbols @ # $ and are used with different meaning as follows A@B means A is smaller than B`. A#B means A is either smaller than or equal to B.` A$B means A is greater than B.` AB means A is either greater than or equal to B. AB means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B. In each equation, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusions(s) is/are definitely true. Given the answer1. If only conclusion I is true. 2. If only conclusion II is true. 3. If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. 4. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. 5. If both conclusion I and II are true. 16. STATEMENTS: H#Q, Q@f, L$F CONCLUSIONS: I. L$H H#F ANS: A 17. STATEMENTS: J$T,T@V, V#M CONCLUSIONS: I. T#M JM
18.

ANS:D

STATEMENTS: U#D, D@R, RT

CONCLUSIONS: I. U@R T$D 19.STATEMENTS:

ANS:E

ML, L$K, K@R CONCLUSIONS:

I.

MR ANS:D

M@R

20.STATEMENTS: J@N, NW, W$V CONCLUSIONS: I. J V II.J@W ANS:B 21.What should come next in the following number sequence? 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4 1.8 2.5 3.6 4.2 5. none of these 22. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter only once in each word? 1. None 2. one 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three 23. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the that does not belong to that group? 1.50 2.65 3. 170 4. 255 5.290 24. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written in that code? 1. EBFAQ 2. EBDAQ 3. BEDQA 4. BEFQA 5. None of these 25. In a certain code BELOW is written as FCKVN. How is GIVEN written in that code? 1. JHWMD 2. HJUMD 3. JHMUD 4. JHUMD 5. None of these DIRECTIONS (26-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: 7 R E T 4 A 9 % D F1U # B @ 8 H I WN M 3 2 V $5NP6Q 26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three

27. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of the which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a symbol? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three 28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol? 1. None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5. More than three 29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1. RTA 2. 9DF 3. #@H 4. 3V5 5. IW 30. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the twelfth from the left end? 1. % 2.8 3.2 4.H 5. None of these 31.The time by my watch is a quarter past twelve. If the hour hand points to the east, which is the direction opposite to the minute hand? 1.North 2.West 3. South 4. South west 5. None of these 32. 100 plates are placed in a box, 60 out of these are painted red and 30 are white, 20 are neither red nor white. The number of plates which are both red and white is. 1.40 2.30 3. 20 4.10 5.5 33. Five girls are sitting in a row. A is on the right of B. C is on the left of B but is on the right of D. A is on the left of E. The first sitting girl from the left is. 1.C 2.D 3. E 4.A 5. B 34. A boy is 10 times younger to his mother who is 5 years younger to her husband. If the boy attains the age of 8 in 3 years time. What is the age of his father? 1. 55 years 2. 50 years 3. 45 years 4. 60 years 5. 65 years 35. A man is facing the Sun in the evening. He starts his journey towards his right and travels 10 km and turns to his left. He goes 5 km, and again turns to his left and

travels 10 km. How far would he have traveled from the initial point? 1.25 2. 20 3. 15 4. 10 5. 5 36. A is the father of B but B is not the son of A. What is B to A? 1. Mother 2. Son 3. Daughter 4. Wife 5. None of these 37. Find the missing figure: 5 8 13 6 9 15 7 10 ? 1. 6 2. 11 3. 14 4. 17 5. None of these 7 5 10 12 6 8 11 9 ? 1. 1 2.4 3. 12 4.14 5. None of these 38. In a row of children facing North, Ritesh is twelfth from the left end. Sudhir who is twenty- second from the right end is fourth to the right of Ritesh. Total how many children are there in the row? 1.35 2.36 3.37 4.34 5. None of these 39. In a certain code RAIL is written as 5796 and TAPE is written as 3748. how is PAIR written in that code? 1.4795 2. 4785 3.3795 4. 8795 5. none of these 40. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1. Rose 2.Jasmine 3. Hibiscus 4. Marigold 6. Lotus DIRECTIONS(41-45): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 41. STATEMENTS: All chillies are garlics. Some garlics are onions.

All onions are potates. No potato is ginger. CONCLUSIONS: I. No onion is ginger. II.Some garlics are potatoes. III. Some chillies are potatoes. 1..only I follows 2..onlyII follows 3..only I&II follow 4. only I&III follow ANS :3 5.All follow 42. Some keys are locks. Some locks are numbers. All numbers are letters. All letters are words. CONCLUSIONS: I. Some locks are letters. II.Some words are numbers III. All numbers are words. 1. only I&II follows 2. only II&III follows 3. only I&III follows 4. only I& either II or III follows All follow ANS:5 43. Some windows are doors. All doors are walls. No wall is roof. All roofs are shelters. CONCLUSIONS: I. Some windows are walls. II. No wall is shelter. III. No door is shelter. 1. None follows 2. only II and III follows 3. only I and III follows 4. only I follows None follows. 44. All bottles are jars.

ANS:

Some jars are pots. All pots are taps. No tap is tank. CONCLUSIONS: I. No pot is tank. II.Some jars are tanks. III. Some bottles are pots. 1. only I&III follows 2. only I&II follows 3. only II&III follows 4. All follows None of these ANS:5 45. Some fish are crocodiles. Some crocodiles are snakes. No snake is tortoise. All tortoise are frogs. CONCLUSIONS: I. No snake is frog. II.Some snakes are fish. III. Some fish are frogs. 1. None of these 2. onlyI&II follow 3. only II&III follows 4. only I & III follow None of these ANS: 1

Test of reasoning 2

1. If 3 is subtracted from the middle digit of the following numbers and then the position of the digits are reversed, which of the following will be the last digit of the middle number after they are arranged in descending order? 589 362 554 371 442 1.5 2.4 3.2 4.1 5.3 2.In a certain code language "GERMINATION" is written as "IMGRENNOAIT".how is ESTAB-LISHED written in that code? 1.BATESLDEIHS 2.BAETSLDEIHS

3.BAETSLEDIHS 4. BEATSLDEIHS 5. None of these 3.If in the English alphabet, all the letters at odd numbered positions are written in serial order from left to right followed by the letters at even numbered positions written in reverse order, which letter will be sixth to the left of seventeenth letter from left? 1.D 2.B 3.V 4.U 5. None of these 4.If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, fourth, fifth, eleventh and thirteenth letters of the word" ESTABLISHMENT" using each letter only once, write second letter of that word as your answer, if more than one such word can be formed, write "M" as your answer and if no such word can be formed, write"X" as your answer. 1.B 2.A 3.E 4.M 5.X 5.In a row of 40 girls, when Kamal was shifted to her left by 4 places her number from the left end of the row became 10. What was the number of Sujata was three places to the right of Kamal`s original position? 1.22 2.26 3. 25 4.23 5. None of these. Directions (141-145) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I AND II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. you have to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implict in the statement. Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit Give answer (4) if neither I or II is implicit, and Give answer (5) if both II and I are implicit. 6. STATEMENT: Country "A" would explore all channels to diffuse current tensions with country"B" and bring peace on its borders`- statement of spokesperson of country`A` Assumptions: I. Country"A" is desirous to diffuse current tension and restore peace with country"B". II. It is desirable to use more than one channel when complex issues are to be setted amicably. ANS :5

7. STATEMENT: Two months ago, it was announced that central government pensioners would get dearness relief with immediate effect but till date, bank have not credited the arrears- A statement from a pensioner's forum. I. Most of the banks normally take care of the pensioners. II. Two months time is sufficient for the government machinery to move and give effect to pensioners. ANS:2 8. STATEMENT: The bridge was built at the cost of Rs.128 crores and even civil bus service is not utilizing it, what a pity to see it grocely under utilizing- A citizen`s view on a new flyover linking east and west sides of a suburb. ASSUMPTIONS: I. The building of such bridges does not serve any public objective. II. There has to be some accountability and utility of money spent on public projects. ANS:4 9.STATEMENT: Use our product to improve memory of your child, it is based on natural herbs and has no harmful side effects-Advertisement of a pharmaceutical company. ASSUMPTIONS: I. People generally opt for a medical product, which is useful and has no harmful side effects. II. Improving memory of child is considered as important by many parents. ANS:5 10.STATEMENT: The traders of state "K" would observe a statewide bandh as the state has failed to meet their demand to resolve sales tax and other issues. ASSUMPTIONS: I. The traders of state"K" have earlier tried other usual procedures to get their problems solved. II. The state "K" is not keen to solve the problem of traders. AN S:1

DIRECTIONS(11-15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit Give answer (4) if neither I or II is implicit, and Give answer (5) if both II and I are implicit. 11.Which village is to the north-east of village "A"? 1. Village "B"is to the north of village A, villages C and D are to the east and west of village B, respectively. II.Village"P" is to the south of village "A" and village "E" is to the east of village "P" village "K" is to the north of village "P". ANS:1 12. Can Rohan retire from office"X" in January 2006,with full pension benefits? I. Rohan will complete 30 years of service in office "X" in April 2006 and desires to retire. II. As per office"X" rules an employee has to complete minimum 30 years of service and attain age of 60.Rohan has 3 years to complete age of 60 AN S:5 13. Among five friends P, Q, R, S and T, who ranks third in terms of salary obtained by them? I.T`s salary is more than P and Q but not more than S. II.R`s salary is lowest among them. ANS:4 14.How is P related to Q? I. j has two daughters, one of them "R" is married to "P" II. Q is the mother of "S", the younger sister of"R" ANS:5 15. Which word in the code language means "FLOWER"? I. "DE FU LA PANE" means "ROSE FLOWER IS BEAUTIFUL" and "LA QUIZ" means" BEAUTIFUL TREE" II. "DE LA CHIN" means "RED ROSE FLOWER" and "PA CHIN" means 'RED TEA" ANS:4

16.Directions(16-20): Study the following information to answer these questions. I. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, V, X belonging to different cities viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Calcutta, Bangalore, Hyderabad and Trivandrum, not necessarily in the same order, went to USA for attending a conference. Each one had a different specialization viz. Literature, Physics, Economics, Marketing, Computers, Textile Engineering and Information Technology. II. "S"is from Chennai and "Q" does not have specialization in Textile or Economics. R is a man of Marketing and comes from Mumbai. The person from Calcutta has specialization in Computers. "P" who is specialized in Literature does not belong to Delhi. V having specialization in Physics is from Trivandram. Information Technology is the specialization of "X" who comes from Ban galore. 16. Which of the following persons is from Delhi? 1.P 2.S 3.T 4. S or T 5. None of these 17.Who is s Textile Engineer? 1. S 2. T 3.V 4.S or V 5.S or T 18.Person with specialisation in Literature comes from which of the following cities? 1.Bangalore 2.Calcutta 3.Delhi 4. Hyderabad 5.None of these 19. Which of the following combinations of person, city and specialisation is correct? 1. S- Chennai-Economics 2. S-Chennai- Textile 3. Q-Calcutta-Computers 4. T-Delhi-Economics 5. None of these 20.Who is specialised in computers? 1.Q 2.S 3.T 4. Data inadequate 5.None of these Directions(21-25): P, Q, R, S, T, U, V &W are eight friends sitting around a circle facing towards the centre. I. W is to the immediate left of P but is not the neighbor of T and S. II. U is to the immediate right of Q and V is neighbour of T.

III. R is between T and U. 21. What is the position of V? To the immediate right of W Between T and R Third to the right of U Second to the left of S None of these. 22.What is the position of S? Between Q and U To the immediate left of P Second to the right of U To the immediate left of Q None of these 23. Which of the following statements is true? I. U is the neighbour of V V is between W and T II. W is between P and S III. T is between U and Q IV. None of these 24.Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as RUN:RACE? 1.Party:Dance 2.Study:Book 3.Lecture:Study 4.Enjoy:Journey 5.None of these 25. Akshay is 16th from the left end in the row of boys and Vijay is 18th from the right end. Avinash is 11th from Akshay towards the right end and 3rd from Vijay towards the right end. How many boys are there in the row? 1.data inadequate 2.42 3. 40 4. 48 5. None of these Directions (26-30): Answer the following questions based on the arrangement given below: Y W @ 1 & C N 3 P L B 9 =D E 2 !MV $7#4FG5 26. C13W: 74VG is in the same way as 1.$F2D 2. VF2D 3.$42D 4.$F!D 5. $F2

27.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and hence form a group. which one does not belong to the group. 1.&LNP 2. 2DE 3.V2M 4. VF74 5.LDB= 28.If the numbers immediately preceding the symbols are attached the value doubled their numerical value. then what will be the sum of the value of all such numbers. 1.22 2.36 3.26 4.38 5. None of these 29. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement which are not immediately preceded by a number and also not immediately followed by a letter? 1.Nil 2.one 3. two 4. three 5.None of these 30. If YW@1 are written in the reversed order,&CN3 are written in the reversed order and so on, then in the new arrangement which of the following will exactly be in the middle between 9 and $? 1.= 2. M 3. 4. D 5.None of these 31.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1.144 2.169 3.256 4.288 5.324 32.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1.camel 2. house 3.bullock 4.cat 5. donkey 33.Prabir started walking toward south. he took a right turn after walking 10 meters. he again took a left turn after walking 20 meters. which direction is he facing now? 1.south 2. north 3.west 4.east 5. cannot be determined 34.How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 421579368 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order? 1.none 2. one 3. two 4. three 5. None of these 35.B is brother of D. D is sister of E. E is brother of F. How is F related to B? 1.Brother 2. Sister 3. Brother or Sister 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these Directions (36-40): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: RD15E%K3JI9P8#A2B$KM6W@N4 T7FH

36.Which of the following is the third to the right of the twelfth from the left end? 1.J 2.A 3.B 4. @ 5. None of these 37.Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the eighteenth from the right end? 1.P 2.3 3.W 4.M 5. None of these 38. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol? 1.one 2. two 3. three 4. four 5. None of these 39.How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number? 1.one 2. two 3.three 4. four 5. None of these 40.Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the tenth from the left end and the eight from the right end? 1.$ 2. # 3.B 4.7 5.None of these Test of reasoning 3 1)In a certain code BELOW is written as FCKVN. How is GIVEN written in that code ? a)JHWMD b)HJUMD c)JHMUD d)JHUMD e) None of these 2)How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SPLENIC each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet? a)Four b) Two c)There d)One e)None of these 3)If ACT is coded as 23-25-16, how will you code the BLOW ? a)23-8-11-19 b)24-8-10-19 c)24-8-11-18 d)24-8-11-19 4)SUPER =79 ,SUPREME =97, LABOUR =? a)49 b) 69 c) 79 d) 89 e)none of these 5)Radha is younger to Sunita but elder than Rita.Rita is elder than Geeta .Sham is elder to Reeta but younger to Radha .Who is youngest of all. a)Rita b)Sunita c)Geeta d)Shan

6)Lata is year older than Sunita .Sunita is two years older than Bindu .Rajn is year older than Bindu .Who is the youngest of all a)Bindu b)Sunita c)Lata d) Rajan e)data insufficient

A family consist of 6 members P,Q,R,S,T,&U. There are two married couples .Q is a doctor and the father of T. U is grandfather of R and is a contractor .Sis grandfather of T and is a housewife .There is one doctor ,one contractor ,one nurse ,one housewife and two students in the family . 7)Who is the husband of P? a)R b)U c)Q d)S e) T 8)Who is the sister of T? a)R b) U c) T d)insufficient data e)none of these 9)What is the profession of P? a)Doctor b)Nurse c)Doctor or Nurse d)Housewife e)none of these 10)Which of the following are two married couples? a)US,QT b)US ,QP c)TS,RU d)US,RP e)none of these 11)Which of the following is definitely a group of male member ? a)QU b)QUT c)QUP d)UT e) none of these These question are based on the following arrangement .Study it carefully and answer the question from 11 to 15 8H%37TA4#6BI@R1QLE2K$U59 12) Which element is sixth to the right of fifteenth from the right end ?
a)

Q b) c) L d) 1 e) none of these

13) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong the group ?
a)

I# b) EQ c) 2 d) $2 e) 5K

14) If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement which element will be ninth from the left end ? B b) 6 c) 4 d)I e) none of these 15)What will come in place of the question mark in the following series based on the above arrangement ? 7T3 4#A BI6 ? a)R@1 b)1QR c) R1@ 4) Q e)none of these s 16)How many such symbols are in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number but not immediately preceded by another number a)None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four Directions (17 to 21):in each question below are two statements are given which are followed by four conclusions .The student has to find out which of the conclusions is valid . 17) All men are wise Rama is a man
a)

all wise are man b) some man are not wise c)Rama is wise d) Rama is not wise

18) No woman is teacher .some teachers are dancers ,therefore a)some teachers are women b)some women are not dancers c) all women are dancers

d)some dancers are not women 19)Some boys are singers .some singers are dancers .therefore a)Some boys are dancers b)some boys are not dancers c)all boys are dancers d)No conclusion can be drawn 20)All birds are are flies .Some flies are not rat a)All flies are birds b)some flies are rats c) some birds are rat d) none of these 21)All books are pens .some pens are pencils a)Some pens are books b)some books are not pencils c)some pencils are not books d)none of these in e ach of the following questions a series of number is given .which of the numbers or number groups will replace the question mark out of the four alternatives 22) 3,12,24,96,192 ? a)768 b)384 c)702 d)298 23)6,3,11,8,18,15,27,24_? _? a)36,33 b)36,35 c)38,35 d)38,34 24) 24,60,120,210,_ a)300 b)336 c)420 d)525 25)8,9,24,12,32,16,42_ a)19 b)20 c)21 d)24 In each of the following questions below ,a group of numerals is given followed by four groups of symbol /letter combinations labelled a),b),c),d).Numerals are to be coded as per the codes and conditions given below. You have to find out which of the combinations a),b), c),d), is correct and indicate your answer accordingly .If none of the four combinations represents the correct code ,mark e) as your answer . Following conditions apply :

1)If the first digit as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as X, 2) If the first digit as well as the last digit is even ,both are to be coded as $, 3)If the last digit is 0, it is to be coded as #

Digit

3 5 7 4 2

6 8 1 0 9

Letter/Symbo B E A @ F K % R M l 26)546839 a)XAFKM b)BAFKM c) XAFKX d)BAFKX e)none of these 27)713540 a)E%BA# b) X%BA# c)X%BAR d)E%BAR e) none of these 28)765082 a)XBFRK@ b)EFB#K@ c)EFBR#K d)EFBRK@ e) none of these 29)487692 a)AKEFM@ b) $KEFM@ c)AKEFM$ d)$KEFM$ e) none of theses 30)364819a)XFAK@M b)FAK%M c)FAK%M d)*EAK%X e)none of these Directions (31 to 33): In each of the following question , a group of words is given .Which of the four words is different from the rest ? 31) a) Mature b)Labour c)Digest d) Ripen 32) a)Here b)Near c)Where d)There 33) a)Boxer b)Player c)Cricketer d)Wrestler Directions (34 to 35): In each of the following question , a group of letters is given .Which of the four groups is different from the rest ?

34) a)FDEG b)SPQR c)MKLN d)WUVX 35) a)BEFJ b)DFGJ c)KNOS d)QTUY

Find the missing figure 36) 5 8 6 9 7 1 0 37) 7 5 1 0 38) 1 27 8 12 6 8 ? 11 9 a)9 b)36 c)316 d)729 13 15 ? a)1 b)4 c)12 d)14 a)6 b)11 c)14 d)17

125 216 64 34 3 ? 512

39) A is 25 years older than B and A'S age is as much above 20 as B's is below 85.The age of A is a)65 b)60 c)55 d)50 e)45 40)Baby's age is 2/3 rd of Mohan. If after 5 years baby is 45 years old, the present age of Mohan a)30 b) 60 c)50 d)40 TEST OF REASONING 4 Directions (1-5) : Below in each question are given two statements (A) and(B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common causes. one of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. read the both the statements and decide

which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer(1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect. Mark answer(2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) IS Its effect. Mark answer(3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independently causes. Mark answer (4) if both the statements(A ) and (B) are effect of independent causes. Mark answer (5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause. 1.A) Government owned oil companies have reduced the prices of petroleum with immediate effect. B) The government has made an appeal to the public to reduce consumption of petroleum products. ANS: 4 2.A) The police authority has recently caught a group of house breakers. B) The citizens group in the locality have started night vigil in the area. ANS:1 3.A) The government has decided to allow private universities to run their won coursed after obtaining necessary approvals. B) There has been continuous decreases in number of students enrolled for various courses offered by the government run universities. ANS:1 4.A)The wholesale grain market is flooded with fresh stock. B) The government has recently increased the procurement price of grains. ANS:2 5.A)The school authority has asked the "X" Std. students to attend special classes to be conducted on Sundays. B) The parents of the "X" Std. students have withdrawn their wards from attending private tuitions conducted on Sundays. ANS:1 6.A) The villagers have decided to boycott the forthcoming assembly elections. B)The state government has recently revised the electoral roll. ANS:4 7. Among M, T, R and P,M is older than only P. T is older than R. Who among them is the oldest? 1.T 2.R 3. T or R 4. Data inadequate 5. None of these

8.What should come next in the following number sequence? 22323423452345623456 7 2 34 1.8 2.5 3.6 4.2 5.None of these 9.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word "CONSTABLE" each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1. none 2. one 3. two 4. three 5. none of these 10.How many such digits are there in the number 5231698 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order? 1. none 2. one 3. two 4.three 5. more than three 11) Four of the five words given below are similar in a certain way and therefore form a group. Find the one which does not belong to the group. a) oligarchy b) Theology c)Hierarchy d) Plutocracy e) Monarchy 12) Austere is related to style in the same way as controlled is related to a) wealth b) faith c) demeanor d) speech e) movement 13)If trombay is written as Baymort in a certain code ,how is Persian written in that code? a) IARPESN b)IANSREP c)PISANRE d)ISRAPNE e)INAPERS 14) What would be the next number in the following series? 6, 0,12, 12, 36, 60 ,? a) 132 b)148 c)216 d)60 e) -24 15)If broom is called stick ,brush is called cupboard ,filament is called tannery, stick is called garbage and tannery is called bucket , then what does a bulb have? a)Tannery b) Bucket c) Garbage d) Stick e) Brush Direction :(6 to 10) : Study the following character sequence and answer the questions given below. N T Q 7 X P J L 5 G H M R W D 3 K C F 2 SEZ

16) What will be 3rd character to the right of 15th character from the left in the above series? a) W b) D c) 3 d) e)K 17) What will be the answer to Q. 6 if the second half of the series were written in reverse order? a) same as in Q 6 b) K c)C d)F e) 2 18) If the given character sequence is reversed ,what will be 8th to the right of 4th to the left of 17th character from the left? a) F b) P c) X d) 2 e)none of these 19)What will come in place of question mark in the following character series? NTQ, T7P, QP5 , ? , XGW a) X5 b)75 c)XLM d)7LM e)X5M 20)Find the odd man out ? a)TQ b)GH c) PJ d) 2S e)WD 21) Archipelago is related to island in the same way as constellation is related to
a)

Planet b) Galary c) Orbit d)Heavenly bodies e) Star

22) If the 2nd, 5th, 6th, and the last letters of the word PREJUDICE are combined to form a meaningful English word, then what is the 3rd letter of the word? If more than one word is can be formed your answer is M and if no word can be formed, then your Answer is X.
a)

M b) R c) D d) e) X

23) If ALIGN is written as BKJFO in a certain code, how is CRUELTY written in that code.?
a)

RBSKNOA b) PQSTRAB c) RSQOZPT d)DAVDMSZ e) ANTORAN

24) In a certain code language ,fel me qur means ' i have passed ' dang ko chauk means 'you are brave' and ne qur tis means i have failed . What will dang qur tis means?

a)You have failed b) I am brave c) You have passed d) can't say e) none 25) How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alphabet? a) None b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) more than 4 26) Seer is related to prophecy in the same way as sage is related to? a) Diligence b) penance c) reward d) flattery e) wisdom 27) Latent is related to manifest in the same way as dormant is related to a)hibernation b) awakening c) perfunctionary d) inspiration e) punctilious 28) If + means , means means ,and means + , then, 5 2 7+(3 2) 4 a)26 b) 31 c)29 d)27 e)none of these 29) In each of the following question below are given two statements followed by two conclusion numbered I and II .You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Consider both the conclusions together ,then decide which of the two given conclusions logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement, disregarding commonly known facts . Give answer: A)If only conclusion I follows B )f only conclusion II follows C)If neither I or II follows D)If neither I nor II conclusion follows and E) If both I and II follows 30) Statements: All lamps are hooks No hook is coloured

Conclusion: I) Some lamps are coloured II) No lamp is coloured ANS: b 31) Statements : All bricks are stamps Some stamps are shoes. I) All shoes are stamps II) some bricks are shoes

Ans :b

32) Statements: Some calenders are sticks. No stick is flower. I) Some calenders are flowers II) No calender is flower. Ans :c 33) Statements: Some belts are crows. Some tents are crows. I) Some tents are belts. II) Some crows are tents Ans:d 34) All envelopes are umbrellas. All umbrellas are chalks. I) Some chalks are envelops II) Some umbrella are not envelops Ans: a
TEST OF REASONING 5

1. In a certain code " CREAM" is written as" NBDBQ".How is "BREAD" written in that code? (1) EBFAQ (2)EBDAQ (3) BEDQA ( 4)BEFQA( 5) None of these 2.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group. 1)50 2)65 3) 170 4)255 5)290 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word "CONSTABLE" each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) none 2) one 3) two 4) there 5) more than there 3. What should come next in the following number sequence? 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 1) 8 2)5 3)6 4)2 5) none of these

4. Among M, T, R and P, M is older than only P. T is older than R. who among them is the oldest? 1) T 2) R 3) T or R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Directions( Qs. 6 to 10 ) : In each of these questions are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 6) STATEMENTS: some flowers are bins. some bins are handles. all handles are sticks. CONCLUSIONS: some sticks are bins. some handles are flowers some sticks are flowers. Only 2 follows Only 3 follows only 1 and 2 follows Only 1 and 3 follows None of these 7) Statements : All trees are gardens. All gardens are stones. All stones are fences. Conclusions : I. some fences are gardens. II. all gardens are fences. III. some stones are trees. 1) only I and II follows. 2) only I and III follows. 3) only II and III follows. 4) all follow 5) none of these 8) Statements : All books are leaves. Some leaves are jungles. No jungle is box. CONCLUSIONS :

I. II. III. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 9)

I. II. III. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

Some jungle are books. No book is box. Some leaves are boxes. none follows only I follows only II follows only III follows only I and II follows Statements : Some towers are windows. All windows are houses. Some houses are temples. Conclusions : Some towers are temples. Some houses are towers. Some temples are windows. Only I follows Only II follows Only III follows Only I and II follows None of these

10) Statements : Some walls are doors. Some doors are cots. Some cots are chairs. Conclusions : I . Some chairs are doors. II. Some cots are walls. III.No chair is door. 1) Only II follows 2) Only III follows 3) Only either I or III follows 4) Only I follows 5) None of these Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: R E T 4 A 9 % D F 1 U # B @8 H 1 ^ W M 32V$5N P 6Q
7

1)

11. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the twelfth from the left end? 1)% 2) 8 3) 2 4) h 5) None of these 12. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol? none 2) one 3) two 4) three 5) More than

three 13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a a number ? 1) None 2) one 3) two 4) three 5) more than three 14.How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a symbol ? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. which is the one that does not belong to that group ? 1) RTA 2) 9DF 3) # @ H 4) 3 V 5 5) i w Directions (Qs. 16 to 20 ) : Study the following information carefully and answer these questions. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is second to the left of F and third to the right of H. A is second to the right of F and an immediate neighbour of H. C is second to the right of B and F is third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of F. 16. Who is to the immediate left of A ? 1) H 2) E 3) G 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 17. Who is fourth to the right of B ? 1)E 2) C 3) A 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 18. What is E`s position with respect to G ? 1) Second to the right

2) Third to the left 3) Third to the right 4) Second to the left 5) None of there 19. How many of them are there between H and C ? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Two or Three 4. Date inadequate 5. None of these 20. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person ? 1.CD 2.BG 3. HA 4. FC 5. None of these Directions (Qs 21 to 25) : in these questions, the symbols @, ^, #, $, and % are used with the following meaning as illustrated below : "P^Q" Means" P" is either greater than or equal to" Q". " P@Q" Means "P" is neither greater than nor smaller than "Q". "P%Q" Means "P" is either smaller than or equal to "Q" "P#Q" means "P" is smaller than "Q". "P$Q" Means "p" is greater than "Q" Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I And II given below them is/ are definitely true? Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I is true. 2) if only conclusion II Is true. 3) if either conclusion I or II is true. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II Is. 5) if both conclusion I and II are true. 21. Statements : M%T, T#R, R@D Conclusions: 1.D$T II. R$T 22. Statements : J$M, M^K, K#N Conclusions: I. J$K II. N$M.

Answer 5

Answer 1

23. Statements : F#T, T@W, W$H Conclusions: I. F#H II. F^H Answer 3 24. Statements : K^R, R$F, F#B Conclusions: I. B$R II. F$K. Answer 2 25. Statements : D$N, N#F, F^T Conclusions : I.T#N II. D$F Answer 4 Directions (26-30): These questions are based on the following set of numbers. 389 476 635 847 568 26. Which number will be the smallest if the first and the last digits are interchanged in all the numbers. 1. 635 2. 476 3. 635 4. 847 5. 568 27. If in all the numbers first two digits are interchanged and then the numbers are arranged in ascending order, which number will be second ? 1.389 2.476 3. 635 4. 847 5.568 28. The sum of the digits of which of the above numbers is the least? 1.389 2. 476 3. 635 4. 847 5. 568 29. If in each number 1 is subtracted from the middle digit and then the first and second digits are interchanged which number will be third, if arranged in descending order ? 1.389 2.476 3.635 4. 847 5. 568 30. If in all the numbers 1 is subtracted from the last digit and 1 is added to the first digit which number will be the smallest ? 1.389 2. 476 3.635 4.847 5.568 Directions(31-35) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I AND II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 31.Who is the youngest among P,Q, R, S and T ? I. Q is younger than R and S but not as young as P. II. T is not the youngest. ANS.5 31. How many children are there in the class ? I.If arranged in ascending order of height Suma Is tenth from the top. II. In order of height, Suma Is five positions above Ranjit who is eighth from the bottom. A)5 33.What is the code for `going` in a code language ? I. In that code language `where` are you going` is written as `ma ka ta re` II. In that code language ` going to college` is written as `lo pe ta` ANS.5 34. How is Sharmim related to Mr.Varghese ? I. Shamim`s son is the only grandson of Mr.Varghese. II. Mr.Vrghese has only one son. ANS.5 35. Village X is in which direction with respect to village Y? I. X is to the east of Z which is to North of Y. II. X Is to the north of L which is to klthe east of Y. ANS.3 36.Pointing to a photograph Sachin said she is the grandmother of my father`s sister`s son. how is the woman in photograph related to Sachin ? 1. Mother 2. Aunt 3.Cousin 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these 37. Which of the letters will come next in the following series ? a ab abc abcd abcde abcde 1.a 2.f 3.b 4. cannot determined 5. none of these

38.if "AXB" means "B" is father of "A" A+B means " A" is wife of "B" and A-B means "A" is brother of "B" then what is the relation of J with L in J+H-RXL ? 1. Daughter 2. Daugher-in-law 3. Sister-in- law 4. Cannot be determined 5. None of these 39. In a row of children facing North. Ritesh is twelfth from the left end. Sudhir who is twenty second from the right end is fourth to the right of Ritesh. Total how many children are there in the row? 1.35 2.36 3. 37 4. 34 5. None of these 40.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PHYSICAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the english alphabet? 1.None 2. One 3. Two 4. Three 5.More than three
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON
COMPUTER AWARENESS AND MARKETING 21. Which of the following is not an advantage of stored programs ? a) reliability b) reduction in operational costs c)) ability of the computer to operate at electronic speeds d) All of the above 22. Data systems for planning are often called a) decision analysis systems b) planning analysis systems c) decision support systems d) All of the above 23. The term "memory" applies to which one of the following ? a) Logic b) Storage c)Control d) Input device 24. The term "memory" applies to which one of the following ? a)Logic b) Storage c) Control d) Input device 25. What is meant by computer literacy ? a) Ability to write computer program b) Knowing what a computer can and cannot do c) Knowing computer related vocabulary d) Ability to assemble computers 26. 26. In most of the PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion slots and active components are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board. What is the name of this board ? a) Motherboard b) Breadboard c) Daughterboard d) Grandmother board 27. Web site is collection of .a) HTML documents and video files d) All of the above b) Graphic files c) Audio

28. Which of the following protocols is used for WWW ? a) ftp b) http c) w3c d) None of these 29. The first page that you normally view Web sites is its : -

a) Home page b)Master page c) First page d) Banner page 30. Host differs from desktop computers in that they can handle : a) Multiple connections b) Single connections c) No connection d) All of the above 31. A stored link to a Webpage, in order to a quick and easy access to it later, is a) WP. Link b) Bookmark c) Field d) All of the abou

32. What is the name of list that stores the URLs of Web pages and links visited w past few days ? a) Link list b) Page list c) History list d) None of these

33. As the power of PC is switched 'ON', the first program that loaded is a) Program b) DOC files c) Operating system d) Network 34. which of the following is the latest operating system of Microsoft? a) Windows XP b) windows vista c) windows 2008 d) None of the above 35. When any application is not responding what is the HOT KEY is to be pressed to end the task? a) CTRL+ENTER b) CTRL+ALT+ENTER c) CTRL+ALT+DEL d) Any one of the above 36. RAM stands for a) Remote access memory c) Random access memory b) d) Read all memory Read access memory

37. Which of the following is a spread sheet package of Microsoft? Microsoft Excel a) Microsoft Project b) Microsoft Access c)Microsoft Office 2007

38. ISP stands for ; a) Internet Service Product c) Internet Source Product 39. CPU stands for ? a)Central Processing Unit c)Central Production Unit 40. 1GB is equal to ?

b) Internet Service Provider d) Internet Source Power

b) Control Processing Unit d) Central Projection Unit

a)1024 Bytes b)1024 Kilo Bytes c)1024 Mega Bytes d)1024 Bits 41. All marketing activities that attempt to stimulate quick buyer action or immediate sales of a product are known as . a. Sponsorship b. Advertising c. personal selling d. sales promotion 42. In general, the single-voice, or synergy principle, involves selecting a specific for a brand. a. positioning statement b. marketing mix c. pricing strategy d. advertising budget 43. Which one of the following is the greatest obstacle to implementing integrated marketing communications? a. Few providers of marketing communications services have the skills to execute IMC programs. b. There is a lack of interest in IMC by top management. c. The cost for implementing an IMC program is difficult to justify.

d. Little can be gained by coordinating the various marketing communications elements. 44. The premise underlying geodemographic targeting is that people who also share demographic and lifestyle similarities. a. are in the same income category b. reside in similar areas c. are of the same age d. are of the same gender 45. A detergent that advertises how clean it gets clothes is appealing to the consumer need. a. Functional b. Symbolic c. Biological d. Utilitarian 46. By definition, simply means that consumers come in contact with the marketer's message. a. Perception b. Exposure c. Attention d. Comprehension 47. Marketers can enhance the consumers' ability to access knowledge structures by a. using loud music b. using colorful ads c. employing verbal framing d. repeating brand information 48. Spurithy notices the television commercial because of the loud sounds. This is an example of . a. exposure b. involuntary attention c. nonvoluntary attention d. voluntary attention 49. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives? a. Objectives must specify the amount of change. b. Objectives must be stated in terms of profits. c. Objectives must be realistic. d. Objectives must be internally consistent. 50. An) advertising objective is aimed at achieving communication outcomes that precede behavior. a. precise b. planned c. indirect d. direct 51. A clothing store that sets their advertising budget by following the major competitor and adding an additional 15 percent is using the method. a. percentage-of-sales b. arbitrary allocation c. objective-and-task d. competitive parity 52. The advertising budget procedure used most frequently is the method. a. arbitrary allocation b. marginal cost c. competitive parity d. None of the above. 53. Which value is derived from the need for variety and achieving an exciting life? a. self-direction b. hedonism c. achievement d. stimulation 54. Marketers are sometimes accused of deceptive practices that lead consumers to believe they will get more value than they actually do. ______________ includes practices such as falsely advertising "factory" or "wholesale" prices or a large price reduction from a phony high retail price. a.Deceptive promotion b. Deceptive packaging c.Deceptive pricing d. Deceptive cost structure 55. The study of human populations in terms of size, density, location, age, gender, race, occupation, and other statistics is called: a.Geothermy. b. Demography. c. Ethnography. d. Hemos-popography. 56. When companies make marketing decisions by considering consumers' wants and the long-run interests of the company, consumer, and the general population, they are practicing which of the following principles? a.Innovative marketing b. Consumer-oriented marketing c. Value marketing d. Societal marketing

57. Regulations that arise to ensure that firms take responsibility for the social costs of their products or production processes stem from which reason for government legislation of business? a. To protect companies from each other. b. To protect consumers from unfair business practices. c. To protect the interests of society. d. To protect businesses from unfair consumer demands. 58. One of the most common problems with using internal database information is that: a. since it was probably collected for some other purpose, it may be incomplete or wrong. b. it is usually expensive to retrieve. c. top executives are usually unwilling to relinquish data, therefore, the data has limits. d. the data is almost always unsecured and, therefore, suspect as to reliability. 59. All of the following are thought to be sources of new product ideas EXCEPT: a.internal sources. b. customers. c. competitors. d. the local library. 60. Each salesperson is assigned to an exclusive area in which to sell the company's full line of products or services in which type of sales force structure? a.Territorial sales force. b. Product sales force. c. Customer sales force. d. Hybrid sales force. ANSWERS FOR MCQs 1-2 11-2 21-d 31-d 2-3 12-3 22-a 32-d 3-2 13-3 23-a 33-d 4-4 14-2 24-b 34-c 5-2 15-3 25-a 35-b 6-1 16[3 26-b 36-d 7-4 17-1 27-c 37-c 8-2 18-2 28-b 38-a 9-1 19-1 29-b 39-d 10-1 20-3 30-c 40-a

1.The Steel Authority of India (SAIL) formed a 50:50 joint venture on January 3,2008 for coal mining within the country with ______ A.Tata Steel 2.India has lifted the ban on FDI from which country? A.Bangladesh 3.Rural Infrastructure Development Fund(RIDF) is setup and managed by________ A.NABARD 4.who has drafted the blue prints of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005? A.Jean Dreze 5.The government of India has set up a committee on the long erm grain policy under the chairmanship of________ A.Dr. Abhijit Sen 6.Who has been appointed as the chairman of Investment Commission by the Government of India? A.Ratan Tata 7.Who has been appointed as the chairman of thirteenth Finance Commission? A.Vijay Kelkar 8.The government of India had setup a National Commission on Enterprises in the unorganised / informal sector under the chairmanship of A.Dr.Arjun Sengupta 9.When did the government enact SARFAESI Act to enable banks to realize their dues without the intervening of courts & tribunals? A.2002 10.How many stock exchanges have so far been recognised by the government of India under the Securities Contract(Regulation) Act of 1956? A.1923 11.Tata Motors much talked about 1 lakh car is being assembled at A.Pantnagar(Uttarakhand) 12.United Nations has declared 2008 as the Year of_____ A.International Year of Potato & International Year of Sanitation 13.Which of the following strains of viruses is responsible for the latest episode of Birdflu? A.H5N1

14.Which Indian cricketer achieved the milestone of 600 wickets in Test cricket? A.Anil Kumble 15.A panel on Investment to review estimates of savings & investments in the economy which suggested improvements in the methods of data calculation is headed by A.C.Rangarajan 16.Dr.Y.Nayudamma Award for outstanding contribution to Defence Research & Development for the year 2007 was conferred on______ A.Dr.Sivathanu Pillai 17. Who was conferred the President's Gold Medal Award at the 95th Indian Science Congress at Visakhapatnam in January 2008 for his key role in development of science & technology? A. V. N. Rajasekharan Pillai 18.Who was awarded the Indian Businessman of the Year 2007 by CNN-IBN? A.Om Prakash Bhatt,the Chairman of SBI 19.Where are the Summer Olympic Games 2008 scheduled to be held? A.Beijing 20."Nector in a Sieve" is a book written by _______ A.Kamala Markandeya 21.Chairman of Inter governmental panel on Climate Change is _____ A.R.K. Pachauri (he has written a book by name "Blossoms from the Dust",was conferred Padma Vibhushan in 2008) 22.Who is the Prime Minister of Pakistan? A.Yousuf Raza Gilani 23. "My Country,MY Life" is the autobiography of _______ A.L.K.Advani 24."NDTV Indian of the Year" award was given to A.Indian Soldiers, which was jointly accepted by all the three chiefs 25.How many teams participated in the BCCI promoted IPL? A.8 26.Agni III missile, developed by DRDO has a range of A.3500 km 27.Who won the Australian Open 2008 titles in the Men's & Women's categories respectively? A.Novak Djokovic of Serbia & Serena Williams of USA 28.Who been awarded the Agricola medal for his contribution to the agriculture and social development in India? A.Dr Manmohan Singh 29.Who has been selected for the prestigious "Jawaharlal Nehru award for international understanding for the year 2007"? A.Dr Olafur Ragnar Grimsson. 30.Dr Manmohan Singh dedicated the 390 MW Dulhasti hydro electric power project in? A.Jammu&kashmir 31.Which was the third state after Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh to provide 50 percent reservation for women in panchayats and local bodies? A.Himachal Pradesh 32. The foundation for India's first Tribal university named "INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL TRIBAL UNIVERSITY " was laid at ? A.Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh 33.Which state constituted forest commission for the first time in India? A.Tamilnadu 34.Central Govt has formed 13-member committee of Secretaries for processing the 6 th pay commission report? A.K.M.CHANDRASEKHAR 35.Proposal of which company to raise 2 billion dollar for Sapan ultra mega power project has been approved by reserve bank of India? A.Reliance power 36.Indian firms among the top 200 companies on the global 2000 list are ? A.RIL and ONGC 37.Number districts covered by NREGS ARE? a.604 38.Which two sectors of the Indian economy are mentioned as drivers of growth in budget 2008-09? A. Services and Manufacturing 39.Growth target for 11 th plan approved by National Development Council? A.9.0 percent

40.The word"Subprime "REFERS TO BORROWERS ,WHO ARE NOT RATED AS "PRIME"AND WHO DOES NOT HAVE A SOUND TRACK RECORD OF PAYMENT OF LOANS 41.GROWTH RATE IN AGRICULTURE FOR 2007-08 IS ESTIMATED IN BUDGET 2008-09? A.2.6 PERCENT 42.IN BUDGET 2008-09 THE THRESHOLD LIMIT OF EXEMPTION FROM PERSONAL INCOME TAX IN CASE OF A WOMAN ASSESSES IS INCREASED FROM RS 145000 TO 180000 Rs 43.Which country is the largest contributer of FDI in india? A.Mauritius 44.India's largest trade deficit is with ? A.Saudi Arabia 45.Which country has become India' s second largest trade partner? A. china 46.The Govt had set up an expert group on Agricultural indebtedness in wake of farmers suicide in cotton growing areas in the country under the chairmanship of ? A. DrR.Radhakrishnan 47.Which country will host the 2014 world cup? A.Brazil 48.Who received king Charles II medal? a.A.P.J.ABDUL KALAM 49.Who was awarded the 2007 congressional gold medal? A.Tenzin Gyatso better known as 14 th Dalailama 50."Jallikattu" is a wild bull taming sport played in which state? A.Tamilnadu 51.Who was elected as the chairperson of of the conference of the speakers and presiding officers of commonwealth ? A.Loksabha speaker Somnath Chaterjee 52.Defence minister A.K.Antony visited which country and held defence relations? A.Malaysia 53.Who won the Hopman cup? A.UNITED STATES OF AMERICA 54.Who among the following recently announced her retirement from professional tennis after she has been tested positive for cocaine at Wimbledon? A.Martina Hinges 55.Serial blasts occurred in which city in Rajasthan? A.Jaipur 56.Who is the chairman of DLF? a. K.P.Singh 57.Who among the following entrepreneurs has been named as the ERNST &YOUNG ENTERPRENEURof the year 2007? A.B.Ramalinga Raju 58.Which organisation estimates the national income of India? A.Central Statistical Organisation 59.The international bank for reconstruction and development is better known as? A.World bank 60.A specially designed train to spread awareness on HIV is ? A.Red ribbon express 61.Chief minister of Karnataka? A.B.S.Yeddi 62)Salwa Judum --an anti naxalite movement is active in _____________? A)Chattisgarh 64)India is short of _____________ Doctors? A) 6 LAKH Doctors 65)President Prathibha Patil recently visited the countries of __________? A)BRAZIL,MEXICO AND CHILE 66)The state earning defamation for attacks on tourists is _______? A)GOA 67)Infant mortality rate in India is presently __________? A)76 PER 1000 LIVE BIRTHS 68)The erstwhile ruler of India over which his heirs are fighting is ________? A)The NIZAM of HYDERABAD 69)The Centre plans to start _________ new metro trains? A)5 70)From the next year ,PIN will be in ______ digits? A)8

71)India ranks ________ in tourist arrivals in the world? A)42nd 72.The cabinet committee on Economic affairs cleared on Jan 17 2008 a scheme under which incentives are to be given to Employers providing jobs to __________? A. The Disabled 73.Anil Ambani's Reliance power Limited(RPL) was handed over on Jan 29 2008,the third ultra mega power project(UMPP) at ________? A.Krishnapatnam,Andhra pradesh 74.The Government accorded Navaratna status to _________ recently ,which is a mineral giant on Jan 24,2008? A.National Mineral Development Corporation(NMDC) 75.How many PSU s have been accorded the Navaratna status so far? A.13 76.Who are the President & Prime Minister of Russia respectively? A.Dmitri Medvedev & Vladimir Putin 77.Who is elected the Prime Minister of Britain? A.Gordon Brown 78.What is "Nargis",which is in the news recently? A.It is the severe cyclone which hit Myanmar 79.Gary Kirsten,who is appointed the coach of Indian cricket coach is from_____ A.South Africa 80.What is the name given to the recently started train between Kolkata & Dhaka? A.Maithri Express 81.Who is the new Chief Executive of International Cricket Council(ICC)? A.Haroon Lorgat of South Africa 82.Who headed the committee on financial sector reforms? A.Raghuram Rajan 83.Who is Wisden's "Leading Cricketer of the World" for 2007? A.Jacques Kallis of South Africa 84.Who is the Indian named in the Wisden's Five Cricketers for the year 2007? A.Zaheer Khan 85.What are the two Indian companies that were listed in the top 25 most innovative companies by Business Week? A.Tata & Reliance 86.Tamil Nadu & Karnataka are involved in a dispute regarding which project A.Hogenakkal 87.On April 28th 2008,PSLV-C-9 launched the following satellites A.CARTOSAT-2A,Indian Mini Satellite(IMS) & 8 other nanosatellites of different countries 88.Who is the renowned Gandhian, social activist, writer & Sanskrit scholar who passed away recently? A.Nirmala Deshpande 89.Who won the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2007? A.B R Chopra 90.Who is Pantaloon Femina Miss India 2008? A.Parvathy Omankuttan 91.Which party won the majority seats in the recently held elections to the Constituent Assembly In Nepal? A.Communist Party of Nepal(Maoist) 92.What is the name of the fourth indigenously built Landing Ship Tank(Large) of the Indian Navy which was commissioned in Visakhapatnam on April 5th 2008? A.INS Kesari