Exam Ens

CCNA 640 802 Final Exam
CCNA Exploration 4 Final Exam Answers

May 29th, 2010 by admin. 4 comments 1. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command? The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs. The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server. The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP. DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud. 2. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command? The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host. The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10. The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network. Port address translation is in effect. 3. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers? ATM Frame Relay HDLC PPP SDLC

May 29th, 2010
by admin. 1. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command? The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs. The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server. The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP. DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
2.
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command? The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host. The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10. The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network. Port address translation is in effect.
3. Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers? ATM Frame Relay HDLC PPP SDLC
4. Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network? Inverse ARP LMI DLCI FECN
5. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server? 10.1.1.2:1234 172.30.20.1:1234 172.30.20.1:3333 192.168.1.2:80
6. A network technician analyzes the network and notices late collisions. The collisions occur accompanied by jabber that originates from the server. What is the likely cause of the problem? faulty switch port web server CPU overload faulty NIC in the web server misconfiguration of web server services
7. What is the result of adding the global command service password-encryption to the configuration of a router? Line passwords are encrypted with type 7 encryption. Enable passwords are encrypted with type 5 encryption. All services must provide an encrypted password to function. Only encrypted messages are allowed for router communication.
8. Which three physical network problems should be checked when a bottom-up troubleshooting approach has been chosen to troubleshoot network performance? (Choose three.) cable connectivity high collision counts
STP failures and loops address mapping errors high CPU utilization rates excess packets that are filtered by the firewall
9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1? failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which data transmission technology is being represented? TDM PPP HDLC SLIP
11. A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.) reduced jitter reduced costs reduced latency the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers
12. Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination? extended reflexive standard time-based
13. An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation? Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation. Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch office LANs. If VLSM is used, what mask should be used for addressing hosts at Branch4 with minimal waste from unused addresses? /19 /20 /21 /22 /23 /24
15. Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable? Wi-Fi satellite WiMAX Metro Ethernet
16. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output as shown, which two statements correctly define how the router will treat Telnet traffic that comes into interface FastEthernet 0/1? (Choose two). Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is denied. Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is denied. Telnet to 172.16.0.0/24 is permitted. Telnet to 172.16.10.0/24 is permitted. Telnet to 172.16.20.0/24 is permitted.
17. What is tunneling? using digital certificates to ensure that data endpoints are authentic creating a hash to ensure the integrity of data as it traverses a network using alternate paths to avoid access control lists and bypass security measures encapsulating an entire packet within another packet for transmission over a network
18. What functionality do access control lists provide in the implementation of dynamic NAT on a Cisco router? define which addresses can be translated define which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool define which addresses are allowed out the router define which addresses can be accessed from the inside network
19. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem? The default gateway is in the wrong subnet. STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.
20. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 have not received any RIP routing updates. What will fix the issue? Enable RIP authentication on R2. Issue the ip directed-broadcast command on R2. Change the subnet masks to 10.11.12.0/8 and 172.16.40.0/16 on R2. Enable CDP on R2 so that the other routers will receive routing updates.
21. Which two statements are true about IPv6 link local addresses? (Choose two.) They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix. They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix. They are assigned by IANA to an organization. They must be manually configured by the administrator. They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.
22. An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent? cracking phishing phreaking spamming
23. Which statement is true about NCP? Link termination is the responsibility of NCP. Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP. NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices. NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
24. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection? local loop DTE cable on router demarcation point demilitarized zone
25. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause? improper LMI type interface reset PPP negotiation failure unplugged cable
26. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface
s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5? The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet. The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router. It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem? There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router. A password recovery process should be done on this router. The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different. The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld. The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.
28. Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems? detect potential attacks stop the detected attack from executing update OS patches for computer systems scan computer systems for viruses and spyware
29. Which IP address and wildcard mask would be used in an ACL to block traffic from all hosts on the same subnet as host 192.168.16.43/28? access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.31 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.16 0.0.0.31 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.16 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.32 0.0.0.15 access-list 10 deny 192.168.16.43 0.0.0.16
30. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks? Apply the ACL in the inbound direction. Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .
31. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet? Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem? Replace the serial cable . Replace the WIC on RA. Configure RA with a clock rate command. Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.
33. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained? The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic. The West side of town is downloading larger packets. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side. More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.
34. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.) Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces. Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access. Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases. Disable the HTTP server service. Enable SNMP traps.
35. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? PPP with PAP PPP with CHAP HDLC with PAP HDLC with CHAP
36. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found? application layer network layer data link layer physical layer
37. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated? application transport
network data link physical
38. Which Frame Relay flow control mechanism is used to signal routers that they should reduce the flow rate of frames? DE BE CIR FECN CBIR
39. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide? Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs. Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer. ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient. Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
40. When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits? LCP LMI DLCI Inverse ARP
41. Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2? There is a Layer 2 loop. The VTP domain names do not match. Only one switch can be in server mode. S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.
42. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem? When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology. Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces. RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
43. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server? Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router. Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5. The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
44. Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices? ATM VPN ISDN Frame Relay broadband DSL
45. Which configuration on the vty lines provides the best security measure for network administrators to remotely access the core routers at headquarters?
Answer: 3nd option
46. When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration? when global DLCIs are in use when using physical interfaces when multicasts must be supported when participating routers are in the same subnet
47. Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider? BE DE CIR CBIR
48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network from reaching the Internet. The access control list also permits traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network. On which interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied? interface Fa0/0, inbound interface Fa0/0, outbound interface S0/0/0, inbound interface S0/0/0, outbound
49. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.) Once a good password is created, do not change it. Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords. Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length. Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters. Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out. Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.
50. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 10.1.1.1". What is the problem? The 10.1.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0. The default router for the 10Network pool is incorrect. The ip helper-address must be added to Fa0/0 interface. The pool of addresses for the 10Network pool is incorrect.
51. Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session? PAP uses a two-way handshake. The password is unique and random. PAP conducts periodic password challenges. PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.
52. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to configure a Frame Relay network. The administrator enters the commands as shown in the exhibit on R2, but the Frame Relay PVCs are inactive. What is the problem? The incorrect DLCI numbers are being configured on R2. The S0/0/0 interface on R2 needs to be point-to-point. The frame-relay map commands are missing the cisco keyword at the end. A single router interface cannot connect to more than one Frame Relay peer at a time.

May 12th, 2010 by admin. 4 comments 1. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server? configuring trunk links on the VTP server configuring or changing the VTP password configuring or changing the VTP domain name configuring or changing the VTP version number configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
2. Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been configured with VTP pruning enabled on all switches. If HostA sends a broadcast frame to SW1, which devices will receive the frame? SW1, SW3, HostF SW1, HostB, HostC
SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, HostF SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, all hosts
3. Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem? The switch must be configured with SSH version 1. The transport input command must specify Telnet access. The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access. The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.

May 12th, 2010 by admin.
1. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server? configuring trunk links on the VTP server configuring or changing the VTP password configuring or changing the VTP domain name configuring or changing the VTP version number configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
2. Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been configured with VTP pruning enabled on all switches. If HostA sends a broadcast frame to SW1, which devices will receive the frame? SW1, SW3, HostF SW1, HostB, HostC SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, HostF SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, all hosts
3. Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem? The switch must be configured with SSH version 1. The transport input command must specify Telnet access. The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access. The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
4. Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes? The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg. A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config. The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch. Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.
5. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.) Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses. The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries. The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries. The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries. Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology? Cat-A Cat-B Cat-C Cat-D
7. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A? SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged. SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk. SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link. SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
8. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem? There is a native VLAN mismatch. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked. VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet? The router will drop the packet. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
10. In a three-layer hierarchical network design, which distribution layer function delineates broadcast domains? routing between VLANs aggregating traffic flows
providing redundant links reducing the network diameter
11. Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The link between the switches is up but not trunked. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets. VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.
12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.) revision number existing VLANs operating mode domain name pruning mode
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.) Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced. A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0. Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN. An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.) Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0. Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2. Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down. Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address. Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
15. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.) It is configured in VTP server mode. STP is automatically enabled. The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections. VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1. The enable password is configured as cisco.
16. Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology? It is sending and receiving data frames. It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
17. Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN? WPA2 cloaking SSIDs shared WEP key MAC address filtering
18. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20? A B C D
19. Refer to the exhibit. A company has acquired a new office in a campus environment. Switches in the existing office and the new office are directly connected by a trunk link. The VLANs and IP addressing are setup as shown in the exhibit. The computers in each office are not able to ping each other. What will fix the problem? Use an access link between S2 and S3. Connect S2 and S3 to a common router. Set the subnet mask in the new office to /24. Configure the new office default gateway to 172.17.10.1 Change the port assignments in the new office to a different VLAN.
20. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 10 has been configured on the VTP server. Users who are assigned to VLAN 10 are connected as shown in the exhibit. On the basis of the outputs that are provided, which group of users will be able to communicate with the users on VLAN 10 on SW1? all the users who are connected only to SW2 users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW3 users on VLAN 10 who are connected only to SW4 users on VLAN 10 who are connected to both SW3 and SW4
21. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value? only the management VLAN
all VLANs except the extended range VLANs all VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005 all VLANs
22. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology? lowest bridge ID highest revision number lowest numeric IP address highest numeric MAC address
23. Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment? non-root port disabled port designated port non-designated port
24. Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode? BPDU frames multicast frames broadcast frames Layer 3 packets
25. Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1? The port will transition into blocking state. The port will transition immediately into forwarding state. The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state. The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown? This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator. When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port. Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.
27. Which statement describes the use of voice VLANs in Cisco IP telephony? The voice VLAN carries both tagged and untagged traffic. The voice VLAN carries untagged traffic having special QoS markings. The voice VLAN must be configured on the switch port to which the IP phone attaches. Data and voice frames are tagged with same VLAN ID between the IP phone and the switch when a voice VLAN is configured.
28. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches? SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not. SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in. SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not. SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.
29. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point? Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point. Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software. From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser. Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
30. What is a possible impact of setting too short an aging time in the MAC address table of a switch? overly large address table unnecessary flooding of packets excessive timeouts of static addresses impaired ability to dynamically learn new addresses
31. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1? Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
32. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1? A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3. Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command. Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1. Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs.
33. Refer to the exhibit. The VTP domain has been configured as shown in the exhibit. The network technician accidentally configured the VTP server as a VTP client. After the technician reloaded the switches, all users in the VTP domain started to complain that they lost connectivity to the users on the same VLANs that are connected to other switches. What should be done in the future to prevent losing all VLAN configurations in a VTP domain? Configure all switches in VTP transparent mode and copy the VLAN configuration into flash. Configure all switches in the network as VTP clients and copy the VLAN configuration into NVRAM. Create a new domain and configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.
In the same domain, configure a second switch as a VTP server to take over in case of a primary VTP server failure.
34. The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.) Reset the VTP counters. Configure VTP version 1 on the switch. Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent. Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number. Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.
35. Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer 5. Which device or devices will receive this message? only computer 4 computer 3 and RTR-A computer 4 and RTR-A computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A all of the computers and the router
36. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another? SSID OFDM WEP DSSS
37. Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces? zero one two four
38. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host? 192.168.1.11 /28 192.168.1.22 /28 192.168.1.33 /28 192.168.1.44 /28 192.168.1.55 /28
39.
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal? only hosts A and B only hosts A, B, and C only hosts A, B, C, and D only hosts A, B, C, and E
40. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.) requires less equipment provides improved range permits increased data rates has a single-input and a single-output needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
41. While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide? This allows the switch to host web pages for the network. This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet. This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch. This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
42. Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced? Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s. Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2. Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch. Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
43. A network administrator configures a switch port with the command switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the resulting behavior of the switch port? The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to auto. The switch port is able to trunk if the remote switch port is set to desirable. The switch port will be disabled if it is unable to successfully negotiate trunking. A successful trunk will be established if the remote switch is non-Cisco but the port is configured for trunking.
44. What is one disadvantage that 802.11a wireless has compared to 802.11g? Use of the 5GHz band requires much larger antennas. The OFDM modulation technique results in a slower data rate. There are fewer non-overlapping channels available to help reduce RF interference. The use of higher frequencies means that signals are more likely to be obstructed.
45. Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated.
What will fix the problem? Relocate the APs closer to each other. Increase the distance between the clients. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11. Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
46. Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this? The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches. The VTP domains are different on both switches. VTP pruning is disabled. VTP v2 is disabled.
47. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm? It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches. It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN. It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains. It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.
48. Refer to the exhibit. The teacher host is connected to port Fa0/7 on switch STW. A student has decided to share access to the Internet by attaching a hub and laptop to STW as shown. What will be the result of the student making this connection? The Fa0/7 port of STW will be shutdown. The student will gain full access to the Internet. Both the teacher and student will be able to receive data but only the teacher will be able to send. The frames from the laptop will be dropped, but the teacher host will maintain connectivity with the network.
49. Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be done to remedy the problem? Allow all VLANs on the trunk link. Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1. Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1. Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
50. What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch? automatically detects duplex settings automatically detects interface speed automatically detects copper cable type automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface
51.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem? Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking. Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down. No routing protocol is configured on Router1. One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
52. An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem? The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch. The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped. The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports. The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

Apr 29th, 2010 by admin. No comments yet 1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode? Cisco001 Cisco123 Cisco789 Cisco901 2. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.) IS-IS EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 RIPv2 3. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID? The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.
There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured. The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used. The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode? Cisco001 Cisco123 Cisco789 Cisco901
2. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.) IS-IS EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 RIPv2
3. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID? The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used. There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured. The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used. The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network? split horizon hold-down timers route poisoning triggered updates
5. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.) The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0. The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value. Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process. Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route. No default route has been configured.
7. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network. Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables. Routers use only hop count for routing decisions. The shortest path first algorithm is used. Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.
8. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes? 3 4 5 7
9. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command? ROM, TFTP server, flash flash, TFTP server, ROM flash, NVRAM, TFTP server NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
10. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B. Which procedure can resolve this problem? Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1. Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1. Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2. Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2 ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1 ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
12. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet? It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs. It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD. It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
13. Which router component is used to store the routing table? Flash NVRAM ROM SDRAM
14. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) They are aware of the complete network topology. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1. What is the reason for the ping failure? The serial interface between two routers is down. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2. RIPv1 needs to be configured.
16. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem? The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled. One of the default routes is configured incorrectly. A routing protocol is not configured on both routers. The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.) a CSU/DSU device a DTE device a DCE device a crossover cable a V.35 cable
18. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.) R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30. The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1. R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30. R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.
Autosummarization must be enabled.
19. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network? D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456 begin_of_the_skype_highlighting via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0 O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0 R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0 I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0 90/2195456 end_of_the_skype_highlighting]
20. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.) The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1. The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2. The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1. The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2. The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1. The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
21. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved? Configure the router ID on both routers. Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0. Configure a loopback interface on both routers. Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.
22. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol? It is a link-state routing protocol. It excludes subnet information from the routing updates. It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table. It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.
23. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) The routers must elect a designated router. The routers must agree on the network type. The routers must use the same dead interval. The routers must exchange link state requests. The routers must exchange database description packets.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized. Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. The static route will not work correctly.
25. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.) Set a lower priority on R2. Configure the routers in the same area. Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1. Add a backup designated router to the network. Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.
26. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem? Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access. RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks. RIPv1 does not support load balancing. RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
27. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface? 172.16.128.154/18 172.16.255.254/18 172.24.64.254/18 172.24.127.254/18
28. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2? 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.0.0/24 192.168.0.0/22 192.168.1.0/22
29. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem? Enable the serial interfaces of both routers. Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates. Configure the same hello interval between the routers. Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
30. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48 B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 A(config)# no router rip
31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server? the IP address of the server the default gateway of host A the IP address of host A the default gateway of the server
32. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols. Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2? The packets will travel via R2-R1. The packets will travel via R2-R3. The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths via R2-R1 and via R2-R3. The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.
33. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) It forwards data packets toward their destination. It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0. It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface. It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address. It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.
34. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table? the path learned via EIGRP the path learned via RIP the path with the highest metric value both paths with load balancing
35. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.) R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1 R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0 R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
36. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be
used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses? 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.1.48 /28 192.168.1.32/27 192.168.1.64/26
37. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route? Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance. Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route. Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops. Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.
38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors. It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.) The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50. All routes are stable. The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1. The serial interface between the two routers is down. Each route has one feasible successor.
40. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem? The routers are configured with different versions of RIP. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command. The maximum path number has been exceeded.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2? The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down. The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route. A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup. The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.
42. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true? Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process. A default route must be configured on every router. The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.
43. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command? Include the default-information originate command. Include the no auto-summary command. Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled. Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.
44. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.) It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails. It may be backed up by a feasible successor route. It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination. It is flagged as active in the routing table. After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.
45. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command? The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2. The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process. The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1. The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.
46. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface the highest IP address of any logical interface the highest IP address of any physical interface the default gateway IP address the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
47. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.) Three network devices are directly connected to Router2. The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up. Router1 and Router3 are directly connected. Six devices are up and running on the network. Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.
48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets? 10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0 10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
50. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this? The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network. The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers. They have different OSPF router IDs. They have different process IDs.
51. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor. EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
52. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols? A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks. A common metric is used by all routing protocols. The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table. The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.
53. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.0/8 64.100.0.0/16 128.107.0.0/16 172.16.40.0/24 192.168.1.0/24 192.168.2.0/24
54. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations. It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received. It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time. It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.
55. Refer to the exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config)# router eigrp Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
56. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table? IGRP RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP
57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28? Router1 Router2 Router3 Router4
58. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
59. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.) ABCD is a router that is connected to R1. ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1. R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD. ABCD does not support switching capability.
60. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network? It will use the A-D path only. It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths. It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion. The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
61. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.) The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one. The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router maintains the same source and destination IP. The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface. The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface. The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
62. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2? It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol. It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network. It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. It is the convergence time measured in seconds.
63. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this? The IP address of host A is incorrect. The default gateway of host A is incorrect. The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets. The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.
64. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.) DRAM loads the bootstrap RAM stores the operating system Flash executes diagnostics at bootup NVRAM stores the configuration file ROM stores the backup configuration file POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules
65. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops? New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged. Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity. A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded. The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
66. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail? from R1 to 172.16.1.1 from R1 to 192.168.3.1 from R2 to 192.168.1.1 from R2 to 192.168.3.1
67. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5? It will drop the packet. It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0. It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol. It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
68. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output? R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28. Automatic summarization is disabled. The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1. A classful routing protocol is being used.
69. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this? The IOS image is corrupt. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM. The POST process has detected hardware failure.
70. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0? It will drop the packet. It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface. It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface. It will forward the packet to R1.
71. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.) It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path. It displays an actual map of the network topology. It offers rapid convergence in large networks. It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices. It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.
72. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and
the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path? If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost. If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table. If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost. If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.
73. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem? The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly. The default route is configured incorrectly. The default-information originate command must be issued on R1. Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.
74. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network? RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF
CCNA Exploration 1 Final Exam Answers Mar 29th, 2010 by admin. No comments yet 1.
Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.) The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing. The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network. The network of this computer can have 126 hosts. The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet. The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address. 2. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0? 255.255.0.0 255.255.248.0 255.255.252.0 255.255.254.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.128 3. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services? application presentation session transport network
Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services? application presentation session transport network
4. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.) 10 Base-T 10 Base-2 10 Base-5 100 Base-FX 100 Base TX 1000 Base LX
5. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data? IP UDP Ethernet a connectionless acknowledgement an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service
6. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255? 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
7. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer? two networks routing the packets two applications communicating the data two hosts at either end of the communication two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame
8. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three) Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority. A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices? Connection 1 rollover cable Connection 2 straight-through cable Connection 3 crossover cable Connection 1 crossover cable Connection 2 rollover cable Connection 3 crossover cable Connection 1 straight-through cable Connection 2 crossover cable Connection 3 crossover cable Connection 1 straight-through cable Connection 2 crossover cable Connection 3 straight-through cable Connection 1 crossover cable Connection 2 straight-through cable Connection 3 crossover cable
10.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A? IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2 IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17 IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18 IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5 IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1 IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication? Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62 Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75 Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62 Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75 Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75 Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown? 1 3 4 5 7
13.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two) This is a server response. The UDP protocol is being used. The destination port indicates a Telnet session. The return segment will contain a source port of 23. The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
14.
Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent? IP address of the host default gateway of the host IP address of the homepage for the host primary domain name server for the host IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local
15.
Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet? The packet will be dropped. The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0. The packet will be forwarded to the destination host. The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.
16.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection? The data is automatically encrypted. A Telnet server process is running on PC1. The connection is made through a VTY session on the router. A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.
17. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.) 172.16.4.63 /26 172.16.4.129 /26 172.16.4.191 /26 172.16.4.51 /27 172.16.4.95 /27 172.16.4.221 /27
18.
Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1? an FTP client a Telnet client a terminal emulation program a web browser
19. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.) TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols. TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets. UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data. TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
20. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data? service port number host logical address device physical address virtual connection identifier
21.
Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1? Athens Ankara London Paris PC4
22.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured? leaving host A leaving ATL leaving Dallas leaving NYC
23
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices? A, B, D, G A, B, E, F C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J
24
Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.) This exchange is part of the three-way handshake. The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated. The data is flowing from server to client. The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated. The data listed is associated with the transport layer. The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
25. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two) Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access. The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access. The entries set the console and Telnet password to c13c0. Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete. Access will be permitted for Telnet using c13c0 as the password.
26.
Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.) segment1 segment2 segment3 segment4 segment5
27. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created? vty aux console enable secret enable password
28.
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network? star ring point-to-point multiaccess mesh
29.
Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue? issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0 issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1 issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0 issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
30. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.) It segments and reorders the data. It exchanges the frames between nodes. It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media. It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host. It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.
31. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255
32.
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram. 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
33.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address. Host B was assigned a multicast address. Host A and Host B belong to different networks. The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
34.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server? 00-08-a3-b6-ce-46 198.133.219.25:80 http://www.cisco.com C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
35. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? access point host hub router switch
36. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission? application presentation session transport
37. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers? 0 to 255 0 to 1023 1024 to 49151 49152 to 65535
38.
Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem? IP address incorrectly entered network cables unplugged subnet mask incorrectly entered network card failure
39.
Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame? only computer D only computer A and computer D only computer B, computer C, and computer D all computers
40. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash NVRAM RAM ROM
41.
Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three) 192.168.18.38 192.168.18.48 192.168.18.49 192.168.18.52 192.168.18.59 192.168.18.63
42. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure? console enable enable secret VTY
43. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ? Switch-6J> Switch-6J# Switch-6J(config)# Switch-6J(config-if)# Switch-6J(config-line)#
44.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational? 127.0.0.1 192.168.64.196 192.168.254.1 192.168.254.9 192.168.254.254
45. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three) uses a flat structure prevent broadcasts heirarchical uniquely identifies each host 48 bits in length contains a network portion
46. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network? address translation DHCP services ftpd web server
47. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC? Use the ipconfig /all command at the hosts command prompt. Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt. Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway. Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites. Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturers website.
48. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two) A single broadcast domain is present Two logical address ranges are required. Three broadcast domains are shown. Four networks are needed. Five collision domains exist.
49. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.) physical addressing encoding routing cabling media access control
50. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command? when the interface is functioning as a DTE device when the interface timers have been cleared when the connected DTE device is shut down when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

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8. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes? 3 4 5 7

Autosummarization must be enabled.

40. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash NVRAM RAM ROM

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