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A ball of mass 2 kg is gently pushed off the edge
of a table that is 5 m above the floor. Find the
speed of the ball as it strikes the floor. 10 m/s
A box is projected up a long ramp with an incline
of 37 degrees with an initial speed of 10 m/s. If
the surface of the ramp is frictionless, how high
up the ramp will the box go? What distance
along the ramp will it slide?
A skydiver jumps from a hovering helicopter
thats 3000 m above the ground. If air
resistance can be ignored, how fast will he be
falling when his altitude is 2000 m? 140 m/s
Wile E. Coyote (m = 40 kg) falls off a 50 m
high cliff. On the way down, the force of air
resistance has an average strength of 100 N.
Find the speed with which he crashes into the
ground. 27 m/s
The rate at which work is done
P = W/t or P = Fv
A mover pushes a large crate (m = 75 kg)
from the inside of the truck to the back end
(distance of 6 m), exerting a steady push of
300 N. If he moves the crate this distance in
20 s, what is his power output? 90 W
What must be the power output of an elevator
motor that can lift a total mass of 1000 kg
and give the elevator a constant speed of 8.0
m/s? 80,000 W or 80 kW
p = mv
F = p/t = mv/t
Momentum is also conserved
A golfer strikes a golf ball of mass 0.05 kg
and the time of impact between the golf club
and the ball is 1 ms. If the ball acquires a
velocity of magnitude 70 m/s, calculate the
average force on the ball. 3500 N
J = Ft
An 80 kg stuntman jumps out of a window thats
45 m above the ground.
1. How fast is he falling when he reaches the
ground? 30 m/s
2. He lands on an air bag, coming to rest in 1.5s.
What average force does he feel while coming to
rest? -1600 N
3. What if he had instead landed on the ground
(impact time 10 ms)? -240,000 N
Elastic Collisions Kinetic Energy is conserved
Inelastic Collisions Kinetic Energy is not
conserved.
Two balls roll toward each other. The red ball
has a mass of 0.5 kg and a speed of 4 m/s just
before impact. The green ball has a mass of 0.2
kg and a speed of 2 m/s. After the head-on
collision, the red ball continues forward with a
speed of 2 m/s. Find the speed of the green ball
after the collision. Was the collision elastic? 3.0
m/s; no
F = Gm
1
m
2
/ r
2
G = 6.67 x 10
-11
N m
2
/ kg
2
Given that the radius of the earth is 6.37 x
10
6
m, determine the mass of the earth. 6.1 x
10
24
kg
An artificial satellite of mass m travels at a
constant speed in a circular orbit of radius R
around the earth (mass M). What is the speed
of the satellite? GM/R
F = -kx
The stiffer the spring, the greater the k
Force and acceleration are greatest when
displacement is greatest.
A 12 cm long spring has a spring constant of
400 N/m. How much force is required to
stretch the spring to a length of 14 cm? 8 N
PE
elastic
= kx
2
PE is maximized when spring is at the
endpoints, KE is minimum
PE is 0 when spring is passing through x=0
(equilibrium) and KE is maximum
A 0.05 kg block oscillates on a spring whose
force (spring) constant is 500 N/m. The
amplitude of the oscillations is 4.0 cm.
Calculate the maximum speed of the block. 4
m/s
A 2.0 kg block is attached to an ideal spring
with a force constant of 500 N/m. The
amplitude is 8.0 cm. Determine the total
energy of the oscillator and the speed of the
block when its 4.0 cm from equilibrium. 1.6
J; 1.1 m/s
f = 1/T
T = 1/f
T = 2m/k
w = 2f, 2/T, k/m
A block oscillating on the end of a spring moves
from is position of maximum stretch to
maximum compression in 0.25 s. Determine the
period and frequency. 0.5 s; 2 Hz
A student observing an oscillating block counts
45.5 cycles in one minute. Determine its
frequency and period. .758 Hz; 1.32s
A 2.0 kg block is attached to a spring whose
spring constant is 300 N/m. Calculate the
frequency and period. 1.9 Hz; 0.51 s
A block is attached to a spring and set into
oscillatory motion and its frequency is
measured. If this block were removed and
replaced by a second block with the mass
of the first block, how would the frequency of
the oscillations compare? f increases by a
factor of 2
KE is maximum at the equilibrium position
Frequency nor period depends on the
amplitude for any object in SHM
L
g
T
=
t 2
A simple pendulum has a period of 1s on
Earth. What would its period be on the moon,
where g is 1/6
th
of the earths value?2.4s
In the drawing, one cycle is shaded in color.
The amplitude A is the maximum excursion of a particle of the medium from
the particles undisturbed position.
The wavelength is the horizontal length of one cycle of the wave.
The period is the time required for one complete cycle.
The frequency is related to the period and has units of Hz, or s
-1
.
T
f
1
=
The period of a traveling wave is 0.5s, its
amplitude is 10 cm, and its wavelength is 0.4
m. What are its frequency and wave speed?
2Hz; 0.8 m/s
f
T
v = =
L m
F
v =
When 2 or more waves meet, they overlap
(interfere)
2 Types of interference
Constructive Interference (added together)
Destructive Interference (subtracted from each
other)
2 waves, one with amplitude of 8 cm and the
other with an amplitude of 3 cm travel in the
same direction on a string and overlap. What
are the maximum and minimum amplitudes?
11cm; 5 cm
L = n(1/2)
f = nV/2L
A string of length 12 m thats fixed at both
ends supports a standing wave with a total of
5 nods. What are the harmonic number and
wavelength of this standing wave?
LONGITUDINAL SOUND WAVES
The area of condensation is
the region of compression
with increased air pressure
The area of rarefaction is
the region behind the
condensation with
decreased air pressure
Sound travels fastest in solids, then liquids,
then gases
ad
B
v =
The change in frequency and wavelength that
occurs when the source and detector are in
relative motion.
Relative motion toward each other results in a
frequency shift upward, and relative motion away
from each other results in a frequency shift
downward
p = m/v
specific gravity = p
substance
/ p
water
(1000
kg/m
3
)
A cork has a volume of 4 cm
3
and weighs .01
N. What is the specific gravity of the rock?
0.25
P = F/A
1 atm = 101,300 Pa (1.013 x 10
5
Pa)
A vertical column made of cement has a base
area of 0.5 m
2
. If the height is 2 m, and the
sp. Gravity of cement is 3, how much
pressure does this column exert on the
ground? 6 x 10
4
Pa
F
g
= pvg
P
liquid
= pgh (depends only on density and
depth)
P
total
= P
atm
+ P
liquid
What is the gauge pressure of a swimming
pool at a point 1 m below the surface? 1 x10
4
Pa
What happens to the gauge pressure if we
double the depth below the surface of a
liquid? What happens to the total pressure?
Gauge pressure increases by a factor of 2;
Total pressure increases by less than a factor
of 2
A flat piece of wood of area 0.5 m
2
is lying at
the bottom of a lake. If the depth of the lake
is 30 m, what is the force on the wood due to
the pressure? 2 x 10
5
N
The net upward force of an object in a liquid
is called the buoyant force.
Archimedes Principle - The strength of the
buoyant force is equal to the weight of the
fluid displaced by the object.
F
B
= pvg
V
sub
= p
object
V
total
p
fluid
If p
object
< p
fluid
, then the object will float
A brick with a specific gravity of 2 and
volume of 1.5 x 10-3 m3, is dropped into a
swimming pool full of water. Explain why the
brick will sink. When the brick is lying on the
bottom of the pool, what is the magnitude of
the normal force on the brick? Specific gravity
is greater than 1; 15 N
A glass sphere of specific gravity 2.5 and
volume of 10
-3
m
3
is completely submerged
in a large container of water. What is the
apparent weight of the sphere while
immersed? 15 N
f = Av
A
1
v
1
= A
2
v
2
(flow speed increases when the
pipe narrows or inversely proportional)
A pipe carries water. At one point in the pipe,
the radius is 2 cm and the flow speed is 6 m/s.
What is the flow rate? What is the flow speed
where the pipes radius changes to 1 cm? 7.5 x
10
-3
m
3
/s; 24 m/s
If the diameter of the pipe increases from 4 cm
to 12 cm, what will happen to the flow speed?
1/9 the flowrate
States that energy is conserved for fluid flow
P
1
+ pgy
1
+ pv
1
2
= P
2
+ pgy
2
+ pv
2
The pressure is lower where the flow speed is
greater (airplanes, hurricanes).
Celsius to Fahrenheit
9/5C + 32 = F
Fahrenheit to Celsius
(F-32)5/9 = C
Celsius to Kelvin
C + 273 = K
Q = mcT (how much heat is added of
removed
in the system to change the temperature)
Q = mL (changing phases)
Sp. Heat of water = 4186 J/kg C
Rate of heat transfer
( )
L
T kA
t
Q A
=
T L L
o
A = A o
A brass rod 5 m long and 0.01 m in
diameter increases in length by 0.05 m when
its temperature is increased by 500C. A
similar brass rod of length 10 m has a
diameter of 0.02 m. By how much will this
rods diameter increase if its temperature is
increased by 1000C? 4 x 10
-4
m
An aluminum rod (p = 2.7 x 103 kg/m3 has a
radius of 0.01 m and an initial length of 2 m at
a temperature of 20C. Heat is added to raise
its temperature to 90C. Its coefficient of linear
expansion is = 25 x 10-6/C, the specific heat
is 900 J/kgC, and a thermal conductivity of k =
200 J/s mC.
What is the mass of the aluminum rod? 1.7 kg
What is the amount of heat added to the rod? 107,100
J
What is the new length of the rod? 0.0035 m
If we were to use this rod to transfer heat between
two objects one side being at 20C and the other side
at 90C, what would the rate of heat transfer be? 2.2
J/s
P = F/A (Pa)
Pv = nRT
Speed of molecules of a gas
In order for the average speed of the
molecules in a given sample of gas to double,
what must happen to the temperature? Since
v is proportional to square root of T, the
temperature must quadruple
m
kT
v
rms
3
=
M
RT
v
rms
3
=
A cylindrical container of radius 15 cm and
height 30 cm contains 0.6 mole of gas at 433
K. How much force does the confined gas
exert on the lid of the container? 35 N
Zeroth Law Heat flows from the warmer
object to the cooler one until they reach
thermal equilibrium.
First Law
W = -PV
Work is positive when work is done ON the system
(volume id decreaseing
Work is positive when work is done ON the
surroundings (volume is increasing)
W Q U = A
THE SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS:
THE LAW OF ENTROPY
Heat flows spontaneously from a substance at a
higher temperature to a substance at a lower
temperature and does not flow spontaneously in the
reverse direction.
C H
Q W Q + =
H H
C
H
C
Q
W
T
T
Q
Q
e = = = 1 1
A heat engine draws 800 J of heat from its
high temperature source and discards 450 J
of exhaust heat into its cold-temperature
reservoir. How much work does this engine
perform and what is its thermal efficiency?
350 J; 44%
An inventor proposes a design for a heat
engine that operates between a heat source
at 500C and a cold reservoir at 25C with an
efficiency of 2/3. Whats your reaction to the
inventors claim?
4 types of thermal processes
An isobaric process is a process that occurs at
constant pressure.
An isochoric process is a process that occurs at
constant volume.
An isothermal process is a process that occurs at
constant temperature.
An adiabatic process is a process during which no
energy is transferred to or from the system as heatat.
Consider two small spheres, one carrying a
charge of +1.5nC and the other a charge -2.0
nC, separated by a distance of 1.5 cm. Find
the electric force between them. -1.2 x 10
-4
N
2
2 1
r
q q
k F =
( )
2 2 9
C m N 10 99 . 8 4 1 = =
o
k tc
( )
2 2 12
m N C 10 85 . 8 =
o
c
It is the surrounding charges that create the
electric field at a given point.
The electrostatic force points in the direction of
attraction
The electric field always points away from the
positive charge and towards the negative charge.
o
q
F
E
=
Electric field does not depend on the sign of
the test charge
2
r
q
k E =
A charge q = +3.0 nC is placed at a location
at which the electric field strength is 400
N/C. Find the force felt by charge q. 1.2 x
10
-6
N
A dipole is formed by two point charges, each
of magnitude 4.0 nC, separated by a distance
of 6.0 cm. What is the strength of the electric
field at a point midway between them? 8.0 x
10
4
N/C
An object of mass 5g is placed at a distance
of 2 cm above a charged plate. If the
strength of the electric field is 10
6
N/C, how
much charge would the object need to have
in order for the electrical repulsion to balance
the gravitational pull? 5 x 10
-8
C
Electric Field Lines Never Cross
Always perpendicular to the surface and point
AWAY from the positive TOWARD the negative
Conductors permit the flow of excess charge;
they conduct electricity well (metals)
There can be no electrostatic field within the body
of a conductor. Why?
Insulators do not conduct electricity well.
Electrons do not flow well
A solid sphere of copper is given a negative
charge. Discuss the electric field inside and
outside the sphere.
o
AB
o
A
o
B
q
W
q q
=
EPE EPE
o
AB
o
A
o
B
q
W
q q
=
EPE EPE
A positive charge q
1
= 2 + 10
-6
C is held
stationary, while a negative charge q
2
= -1 x
10
-8
C, is released from rest at a distance of
10 cm from q
1
. Find the kinetic energy
change of charge q
2
when its 1 cm from q
1
.
0.016 J
Let Q = 2 x 10-8 C. What is the potential at a
Point P that is 2 cm from Q? 900 V
How much work is done as a charge moves
along an equipotential surface? 0
B A o
AB
A B
r
kq
r
kq
q
W
V V =
=
r
kq
V =
Capacitors are storage devices for electricity.
q = CV
Parallel plate capacitors
d
A
C
o
kc
=
A 10 nF parallel plate capactior holds a
charge of 50C on each plate. What is the
electric potential difference between the
plates? If the plates are separated by a
distance of 0.2 mm, what is the area of each
plate? 5000 V; 0.23 m
2
Amount of voltage the battery produces
I = q/t (Amps, A)
The direction of the current is taken to be the
direction that a positive charge would move
Resistors are devices that control current
R = V/I (Ohms Law)
Notice that if the current is large, the
resistance is low. If the current is small, the
resistance is high.
Resistivity:
A
L
R =
resistivity in units of ohmmeter
A wire of radius 1mm and length 2 m is made
of platinum (resistivity = 1 x 10
-7
m). If a
voltage of 9 V is applied between the ends of
the wire, what will be the resulting current?
140 A
IV P =
( ) R I IR I P
2
= =
R
V
V
R
V
P
2
=
|
.
|
\
|
=
Combining Resistors
Series (one after the other):
Add as normal
Parallel (side by side):
Add as inverse
Same voltage applied across each device
+ + + =
3 2 1
R R R R
S
+ + + =
3 2 1
1 1 1 1
R R R R
P
Calculate the equivalent resistance in the circuit
Combining Capacitors
Series (one after the other):
Add as inverse
Parallel (side by side):
Add as normal
C = q/V
+ + + =
3 2 1
C C C C
P
+ + + =
3 2 1
1 1 1 1
C C C C
S
Field lines travel away from the North poles
and travel toward the South poles.
X X X X X
X X X X X
X X X X X
X X X X X
(into the page) (out of the page)
The magnetic force always remains
perpendicular to the velocity and is directed
toward the center of the circular path.
( ) u sin v q
F
B
o
=
Right Hand Rule #1 (for positive charges)
Thumb Direction particle is traveling
Index Direction of Magnetic Field
Middle Direction of Magnetic Force
If the charge is NEGATIVE, the force is the
opposite direction
u sin ILB F =
r
I
B
o
t
2
=
A m T 10 4
7
=
t
o
c = 3.00 x 10
8
m/s (speed of light)
f
v
=
Law of Reflection
Incident angle is the same as the reflected angle
n = c/v
Snells Law relates the angle of incidence
and the angle of refraction
If n2<n1, light bends AWAY from the normal.
If n2>n1, light bends TOWARD the normal.
2 2 1 1
sin sin u u n n =
A beam of light in air is incident upon a piece
of glass striking the surface at an angle of 30
degrees. If the index of refraction of the
glass is 1.5, what are the angles of reflection
and refraction? 60; 35
Critical Angle - The angle of incidence at
which the angle of refraction is 90. No light
is refracted out and the beam is refracted
along the surface.
If the angle of incidence is greater than the critical
angle, no beams of light are refracted.
2 1
1
2
sin n n
n
n
c
> = u
|
|
.
|
\
|
=
'
1
2
n
n
d d
Apparent depth,
observer directly
above object
Conceptual Example 4 On the Inside Looking Out
A swimmer is under water and looking up at the surface. Someone
holds a coin in the air, directly above the swimmers eyes. To the
swimmer, the coin appears to be at a certain height above the
water. Is the apparent height of the coin greater, less than, or the
same as its actual height?
Light rays are refracted AWAY from the normal
when going from a higher index of refraction to
a lower index of refraction.
When it is the opposite, the light bends
TOWARD the normal
Focal length = R/2
Concave Mirrors
1. An incident ray parallel to the axis that is reflected
through the focal point
2. An incident ray that passes through the focal
point and reflected parallel
3. An incident ray that strikes the vertex is reflected
at an equal angle to the axis
Convex Mirrors
1. An incident ray parallel to the axis is reflected
away from the focal point
2. An incident ray directed towards the focal point is
reflected parallel to the axis
3. An incident ray that strikes the vertex is reflected
at an equal angle to the axis
Mirror Equation
Magnification Equation
f d d
i o
1 1 1
= +
o
i
o
i
d
d
h
h
m = =
Summary of Sign Conventions for Spherical Mirrors
mirror. concave a for is + f
mirror. convex a for is f
mirror. the of front in is object the if is +
o
d
mirror. the behind is object the if is
o
d
image). (real mirror the of front in is object the if is +
i
d
image). (virtual mirror the behind is object the if is
i
d
object. upright an for is + m
object. inverted an for is m
An object of height 4 cm is placed 30 cm in
front of a concave mirror whose focal length
is 10 cm.
Wheres the image? 15 cm
Is it real or virtual? real
Is it upright or inverted? inverted
What the height? -2cm
An object of height 4 cm is placed in front of
a convex mirror whose focal length is -30cm.
Wheres the image? 12 cm
Is it real or virtual? virtual
Is it upright or inverted? upright
Whats the height of the image? 2.4 cm
Converging lenses cause rays of light to
converge to a focal point.
Diverging lenses cause rays of light to
diverge away from the focal point
Converging Lenses
Incident ray parallel to the axis is refracted through
the focal point.
Incident rays pass through the center point of the
lens.
Diverging Lenses
An incident ray parallel to the axis is reflected away
from the focal point
Incident rays pass through the center point of the
lens.
Summary of Sign Conventions for Lenses (page 827)
lens. converging a for is + f
lens. diverging a for is f
lens. the of left the to is object the if is +
o
d
lens. the of right the to is object the if is
o
d
image). (real lens the of right the to formed image an for is +
i
d
image). (virtual lens the of left the to formed image an for is
i
d
image. upright an for is + m
image. inverted an for is m
An object of height 11 cm is placed 44 cm in
front of a converging lens with a focal length
of 24 cm
Wheres the image? 53 cm
Is it real or virtual? real
Is it upright or inverted? inverted
Whats the height of the image? -13 cm
An object of height 11 cm is placed 48 cm in
front of a diverging lens with a focal length of
-24.5 cm.
Wheres the image? -16 cm
Is it real or virtual? virtual
Is it upright or inverted? upright
Whats the height of the image? 3.7 cm
Light behaves like a stream of photons,
known as the photoelectric effect.
E = Energy of a photon
h = Plancks Constant 6.63 x 10
-34
Js
Increasing the intensity of the incident energy
means bombardment with more photons and
results in the ejection of more photoelectrons
= work function
hf E =
KE = | E
The threshold frequency is the frequency at
which photons need to travel to eject
electrons.
f = /h
New unit for photon energy is electronvolt
(eV)
1eV = 1.6 x 10
-19
J
Examples
The work function for aluminum is 4.08 ev
What is the threshold frequency required to produce
photoelectrons from aluminum? 9.86 x 10
14
Hz
Classify the electromagnetic radiation that can produce
photoelectrons. UV
If light of frequency f = 4.00 x 10
15
Hz is used to illuminate
a piece of aluminum,
What is the KE of ejected photoelectrons? 12.5 eV
Whats the maximum speed of the photoelectron? (Electron mass
= 9.11 x 10
-31
kg) 2.1 x 10
6
m/s
If the light described in part b were increased by a factor of
2 in intensity, what would happen to the value of the
Kinetic Energy? Nothing
Bohr theorized that a photon is emitted only
when the electron changes orbits from a
larger one with a higher energy to a smaller
one with a lower energy
En = Ionization Energy the minimum amount of
energy that must be supplied to release the atoms
electron
Z = number of protons
n = energy level
( ) , 3 , 2 , 1 J 10 18 . 2
2
2
18
= =
n
n
Z
E
n
( ) , 3 , 2 , 1 eV 6 . 13
2
2
= = n
n
Z
E
n
How much energy must a ground state
electron (n=1) in a hydrogen atom absorb to
be excited to the n=4 energy level? 12.8 eV
With the electron in the n=4 level, what
wavelengths are possible for the photon
emitted when the electron drops to a lower
energy level? In what regions of the EM
spectrum do these photons lie?
Light exhibits both wave-like and particle-
like characteristics
h = Plancks Constant
p = linear momentum (mv)
p h =
neutrons
of Number
protons
of Number
neutrons and
protons of Number
N Z A + =
atomic
number
atomic mass
number
How many protons and neutrons are
contained in
29 Protons, 34 Neutrons
u C
63
29
Isotope Contain the same number of
protons but different number of neutrons
The element Neon (atomic number 10) has
several isotopes. The most abundant isotope
contains 10 neutrons, and two others contain
11 and 12. Write symbols for these three
nuclides (a nucleus with a specific number of
protons and neutrons
Example 3 The Binding Energy of the Helium Nucleus Revisited
The atomic mass of helium is 4.0026u and the atomic mass of hydrogen
is 1.0078u. Using atomic mass units, instead of kilograms, obtain the
binding energy of the helium nucleus.
u 0304 . 0 u 0026 . 4 u 0330 . 4 = = Am
MeV 5 . 931 u 1
MeV 3 . 28 energy Binding =