MCQs CNS

Final year teaching program

1. In CNS the blood brain barrier is associated with foot processes of A-Astrocytes B-Oligodendocytes C-Microglia D-Each of the above

2.The total number of neurotransmitter known, so far A-5 B-10 C-20 D-40

3. All of the following are excitatory neurotransmitters except A- Acetylcholine B- Adrenaline C- GABA D- Dopamine

4. Acetylcholne is related to all the following neurological diseases except A- Alzheimers Disease B- Myasthenia C- MND D- Migraine E- Parkinsons Disease

5. Most important use of EEG is in the management of A- Stroke B- Epilepsy C- Migraine D- MND

6. Regarding role of EEG spot the correct statement A- EEG provides unequivocal evidence of epilepsy B- EEG distinguishes types of epilepsy C- It can tell about site of epileptigenic focus D- Helpful in diagnosis of encephalopathy, encephlitis and CV diseases

7. Pts with clinical epilepsy may have normal EEG in upto A- 10% B- 25% C- 50% D- 60%

8. What is false about EMG studies A- Helps to know the type and sverity of polyneuropathy B- Helps to diagnose myasthenia and Lambert Eaton disease C- Myotonia has characteristic EMG findings D- All are true

9. MRI studies are helpful for A- Structural evaluation B- Functional evaluation C- Vascular status D- All of the above

10. Limitations of cranial CT include A- Poorly images posterior fossa B- White matter abnormalities poorly detected C- Detailed analysis of grey matter often difficult D- All of above

11. The best modality to image the spinal nervous system is A- Myelography B- CT scan C- MRI D- Tomography

12. Despite availability of MRI angiography, intra-arterial angiography has to be done in A- Carotid end arterectomy B- AV malformation C- Vascular supply of tumor before surgery D- Berry aneurysm E- Each of the above

13. Lumber puncture is helpful in diagnosis of all except A- Arachnoiditis B- Multiple sclerosis C- Carcinomatous miningitis D- Cerebral lupus E- Subarachnoid bleed

14. Normal CSF pressure is A- 15-30 mm B- 30- 80 mm C- 50-180 mm D- 100-200 mm

15. All the following are characters of headach of raised ICP except A- Worse on forward bending B- Worse as day progresses C- Increased with coughing and straining D- Projectile vomiting without nausea

16. Migraine headache responds to A- 5HT agonists (sumatriptan) B- 5HT antagonists (pizotifen) C- Beta blocker D- All of the above

17. Best drug to prevent attacks of cluster headache is A- Methysurgide B- Verapamil C- Lithium D- Prednisolone

18. In coital headache CT is often advisable to exclude A- Subarachnoid bleed B- Basilar migraine C- Hydrocephalus D- All of the above

19. The trigeminal neuralgia is most likely to be due to A- Demyelinating plaque at root entry zone (MS) B- Root flet compression by aberrant vessel loop C- Compression by CP angle tumor D- Idiopathic

20. Characteristic features of Meinieres disease are all except A- Tinnitus B- Deafness for high frequency C- Vertigo D- Vomiting

21. Factors which may trigger seizures include A- Sleep deprivation B- Pyrexia C- Alcohol ingestion/withdrawl D- Emotion / physical stress E- All of the above

22. Drug capable of causing seizure is A- Anti-depressants B- Phenothiazines C- Metronidazole D- Local anaesthetics E- All of the above

23. Long-term side effects of Phenytoin therapy include all except A- Gum hypertrophy B- Hirsutism C- Folate deficiency D- Alopecia E- Neuropathy

24. The most feared complication of prolonged Valproate therapy ia A- Anorexia B- Drowsiness C- Hepatic necrosis D- Wt gain E- Drug rash

25. In GTCS all the following are effective except A- Gabapentin B- Lamotrigine C- Vigabatrin D- Clobazam

26. Which form of epilepsy carries best prognosis? A- Partial seizures B- Tonic clonic seizures C- Petit-mal D- Atonic seizures

27. Dreaming occurs during A- REM sleep B- NREM sleep C- Both D- none

28. Which of the following is not a feature of UMN lesion A- Loss of voluntary movements B- Spasticity C- Fasciculations D- Extensor planter E- Exaggerated tendon refflexes

29. Clinical features of extrapyramidal lesions include all except A- Cog-wheel rigidity B- Hypokinesia C- Resting tremor D- Muscle weakness E- Dystonia

30. Tremor is a feature in all except A- thyrotoxicosis B- Alcohol withdrawl C- TCA D- Congestive heart failure E- Hypoglycaemia

31. Dementia is a feature of all except A- AIDS B- Brainstem encephalitis C- Syphillis D- Normal pressure hydrocephalus E- Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

32. Comprehension is intact in A- Brocas aphasia B- Wernickes aphasia C- Conduction aphasia D- Global aphasia

33. Leisions around jugular foramen involve all the following cranial nerves except A- X B- IX C- XI D- XII

34. Visual disturbance in parietal lobe disease A- Scotoma B- Homonymus hemianopia C- Contralateral homonymus lower quadrantanopia D- Contralateral homonymus upper quadrantanopia

35. Positive visual symptoms are all except: A- Fortification spectra B- Teichopsia C- Phosphenes D- Paracentral scotoma

36. What is not true of intranuclear ophthalmoplegia? A- It occurs due to lesion in MLF B- MLF links IIIrd nerve nucleus in mid brain to VI th nerve nucleus in pons C- The disorder is usually unilateral D- On laterasl gaze the abducting eye shows coarse horizontal nystagmus, the other eye showing poor adduction E- The commonest cause is multiple sclerosis

37. What is not true about innervation of bladder A- Parasympathetic outflow is from sacral 2,3,4 and stimulates bladder contraction B- Sympathetic supply is from L1-2 and causes bladder relaxation C- External sphincter is supplied by pudendal nerve D- Internal sphincter contraction is mediated by parasympathetic

38. Characteristic features of TIAs include all except A- The neurological dysfunction clears within 24 hrs B- Commonly due to thromboembolism from carotid C- Can be due to critical carotid obstruction D- Vertibrobasilar TIA is more common E- About 25% of pts who have a completed stroke have had TIA in past

39. Acute sroke should be differentiated from A- Cerebral tumors B- Cerebral abscess C- Demyelination D- Subdural hematoma E- Each of the above

40. Major risk factors for stroke include A- Cigarette smoking B- Diabetes mellitus C- Hyperlipidemia D- All of the above

41. Predisposing factors for cerebral venous thrombosis include all of the following except: A- polycythemia B- Dehydration C- Pregnancy D- Oral contraceptives E- Alcohol

42. Drugs used in spasticity are all except A- baclofen B- Dantrolene C- Tizanidine D- Diazepam E- Oxybutynin

43. The first symptom of parkisnonism is usually A- Resting tremor B- Bradykinesia C- Gait Disturbance D- Expressionless Face

44. Overdose of pyridostigmine produces all of the following except A- Muscle Palsy B- sweating C- Fascicualtions D- dilated pupils

45. Which Nerve root is commonly compressed in Cervical spndylosis A- C4 B- C5 C- C6 D- C7 E- T1

46. A disc prolapse at L5 produces all except A- Flaccid Paralysis B- Sphincteric Disturbance C- UMN spasticity D- segmental sensory loss

47. Rifampin can be used in which form of meningitis A- Meningococcal B- Pneumococcal C- H.Influenza D- L.Monocytogene

48. Which of the following is not a feature of tetanus A- Lock jaw B- Risus sardonicus C- Generalized rigidity D- Painless spasm

49. Hydocephalus may follow which of the following A- Meningitis B- SAH C- Sagittal sinus thrombosis D- All of the above

50. The drug of choice for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy A- Sodium valproate B- Phenobarb C- Carbamazepine D- Gabapentin

THE END

1-A
2-C 3-C

11-C
12-E 13-A

21-E
22-E 23-D

31-B
32-A 33-D

41-E
42-E 43-A

4-D
5-B 6-A 7-C 8-D

14-C
15-B 16-D 17-C 18-A

24-C
25-A 26-C 27-A 28-C

34-C
35-D 36-C 37-D 38-D

44-D
45-C 46-C 47-D 48-D

9-D
10-D

19-B
20-B

29-D
30-D

39-E
40-D

49-D
50-A