1. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

A. By excluding the oxygen from the fire

B. By cooling the oil below the ignition
temperature
C. By removing the fuel source from the fire
D. By increasing the weight of the oil
2. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to
extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
A. removing the fuel .
B. interrupting the chain reaction
C. removing the oxygen
D. removing the heat
3. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity
fog you would __________.
A. attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the
nozzle shut down .
B. order the engine room to reduce pressure on
the fire pump
C. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all
the way forward
D. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all
the way back
4. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a
fixed extinguishing system of a cargo vessel
shall be at least sufficient
for_________________.
A. Space requiring largest amount
B. All cargo-space
C. All the space of the vessel
D. Engine room and largest cargo space
5. A fire is considered 'under control'
when________ .
A. the fire is contained and no longer spreading
B. all hands are at their fire stations
C. all firefighting equipment is at
D. the scene the fixed systems are activated
6. A definite advantage of using water as a fire
extinguishing agent is its characteristic of
__________.
A. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and
changes to steam
B. alternate expansion and contraction as water
in a liquid state becomes a vapor
C. absorption of smoke and gases as water is
converted from a liquid to a vapor
D. rapid contraction as water is converted from
a liquid to a vapor
7. At the required fire drill, all persons must
report to their stations and demonstrate their
ability to perform duties assigned to them
________.
A. In the Muster List (“Station Bill”)
B. At the previous safety meeting
C. By the person conducting the drill
D. By the Coast Guard regulations
8. You are underway when a fire breaks out in
the forward part of your vessel. If possible you
should __________.
A. put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. call for assistance
C. abandon ship to windward
D. keep going at half speed
9. A galley grease fire would be classified as .
A. Class B
B. Class A
C. Class C
D. Class D
10. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair
tower must be closed to prevent the spread of
fire by __________.
A. convection
B. conduction
C. radiation
D. ventilation
11. A fire may spread by which of the following
means?
A. Conduction
B. transmission
C. contraction
D. ventillation
12. The function of the bypass valve on the self-
contained breathing apparatus is to
__________.
A. allow the wearer to manually give himself
oxygen
B. control the pressure of the oxygen as it
enters the body
C. release excess heat which would otherwise
cause the bottle to explode
D. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the
bottle
13 Foam extinguishes fire by_______.
A. Smoothering
B. Cooling
C. Chemical action I
D. nerting the air
14. Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when
________.
A. Cutting off oxygen source
B. Cooling below its ignition temperature
C. Removing fuel
D. Spraying with water
15. Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant
screen to prevent ____.
A. Flames entering the tank vent
B. Escape of flammable vapors
C. Corrosion in the tank vent
D. Damge to the ball check
16. Which fire extinguishing agent has the
greatest capacity for absorbing heat?
A. Water
B. Foam
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Dry chemical
17. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire
extinguisher includes_________ .
A. weighing the cylinder and recharging if
weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the
charge
B. inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the
needle is within operating range
C. hydrostatic testing of the cylinder
D. discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging
18. A spark arrestor _______.
A. prevents sparks from getting out of an
engine's exhaust system
B. keeps sparks from falling into an open tank
C. secures covers on ullage openings
D. grounds static electricity
19. On an inspection of your tankship you notice
that there are no portable fire extinguishers in
the pump room. To comply with regulations,
you __________.
A. should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher
placed in the lower pumproom
B. need not be concerned since no portable
extinguishers are required in the pumproom
C. should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher
placed in the vicinity of the exit
D. may substitute sand for the required
extinguishers
20. How often shall crew members participate
in fire drills?
A. once every month
B. once every 6 months
C. once every year
D. once every week
21. All of the following are part of the fire
triangle except __________.
A. Electricity
B. Oxygen
C. heat
D. fuel
22. What is required in addition to the heat,
fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a
fire?
A. Chain reaction
B. Pressure
C. Smoke
D. Electricity
23. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated
by __________.
A. the difference in thermal expansion of two
dissimilar metals
B. smoke sensors
C. pressure loss due to air being heated
D. an electric eye which actuates when smoke
interferes with the beam
24. The supply of carbon dioxide used in the
fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo
vessel must be at least sufficient for
__________.
A. the space requiring
B. the largest amount the engine room and
largest cargo space
C. all cargo spaces
D. all the spaces of a vessel
25. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo
tanks shall be set with __________.
A. the master control valve shut and valves to
individual cargo tanks open
B. the master control valve shut and valves to
individual cargo tanks shut
C. the master control valve open and valves to
individual cargo tanks shut
D. all valves open
26. What is the function of the bypass valve on the
self-contained breathing apparatus?
A. In the event of a malfunction in the equipment,
the valve can be operated manually to give the
wearer air.
B. The valve opens in excessive heat to release the
oxygen in the bottle and prevent the bottle from
exploding.
C. When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi
above atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to
release pressure.
D. The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle
to about 3 psi above atmospheric pressure.
27. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a
portable dry chemical extinguisher. The
discharge should be directed __________.
A. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near
edge
B. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
C. over the top of the fire
D. at the main body of the fire
28. You are fighting a fire in the electrical
switchboard in the engine room. You should
secure the power, then __________.
A. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
B. use a portable foam extinguisher
C. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire
hose
D. determine the cause of the fire
29. When two fire hose teams are attacking a
fire they should __________.
A. not attack the fire from opposite sides
B. use different fire hose pressures
C. use fire hoses of different sizes
D. not wear protective clothing
30. To effectively limit the load of diesel
engines, which of the following components
below must governors be equipped with?
A. A variable maximum fuel stop
B. A fixed maximum fuel stop
C. Pivotless centrifugal flyballs
D. A proportional action compensation
mechanism
31. Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by
__________.
A. the heat of compression
B. a spark plug injectors
C. increasing
D. jacket water temperatures
32. In general, where should you expect to find
the greatest amount of wear on a cylinder
liner?
A. Opposite the top ring shortly after piston
travel has ended the compression stroke
B. Adjacent to the piston skirt when the crank is
on TDC
C. Along the lower part of the liner wall
opposite the oil control ring
D. Opposite the oil control ring when the crank
is on bottom dead center
33. If there is a change in the degree of fuel
atomization in a diesel engine, what could be
greatly affected in the combustion process?
A. Fuel penetration
B. Air turbulence
C. Fuel spray angle
D. Fuel injection rate
34. Which of the following operations listed
below will have a direct impact on the rate of
wear in a cylinder liner?
A. Quality of fuel injected
B. Amount of scavenge air to the cylinder
C. Viscosity of the lube oil
D. Compression ratio of the piston
35. Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are
used to _____________.
A. remove moisture accumulations from
cylinders prior to starting
B. check cylinder lubrication prior to starting
engine
C. connect exhaust gas analyzers to determine
engine efficiency
D. pressure test cylinder heads to check for
leaks
36. Before starting a diesel engine, you should
always _____________.
A. check the crankcase oil level
B. check the pyrometer readings
C. change the fuel oil strainers
D. clean the air filter
37. As engine RPM is increased from idle speed
to full load speed, which of the conditions
listed will decrease?
A. Fuel/air ratio
B. Compression ratio
C. Compression pressure
D. Lube oil pressure
38. Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less
than 30% of designed normal load for
prolonged periods will result in
_____________.
A. carbon formation on combustion chamber
surfaces
B. decreased fuel consumption per brake
horsepower
C. more complete cylinder scavenging
D. extended valve life
39. Which of the following conditions is
indicated by the presence of water in the
scavenging air receiver?
A. Leaking cooler tubes
B. Excessively high scavenge air temperature
C. Outside E.R. raining
D. Leaking cylinder head gaskets
40. For a continuous operation of diesel engine,
why is it that the use of a duplex filter unit
would be the best arrangement?
A. Changing filter elements would not interrupt
engine operation
B. Filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil
through the system
C. Clogging will not occur
D. Dropping pressure is half of that through a
single filter unit
41. Which of the events listed does NOT occur
during the instance the piston just reaches top
dead center?
A. Intake
B. Ignition
C. Power
D. Combustion
42. Which of the following is the most common
cause of machinery vibrations when the vessel
is maneuvering?
A. Critical speed
B. Loose foundation bolts
C. Checked M/E deflections
D. Wrong timing
43. What is the main operating characteristic of
diesel engines that distinguishes them from
other internal combustion engines?
A. Method of igniting fuel
B. Method of supplying air
C. Cooling system
D. Valve operating mechanism
44. Which of the two events listed occurs
simultaneously in a two-stroke/cycle diesel
engine?
A. Exhaust and scavenging
B. Scavenging and compression
C. Ignition and expansion
D. Exhaust and compression
45. What part of diesel generator engine that
must be checked first if heavy smoke is
emitting from the funnel during it's operation.
A. Fuel oil valve
B. Starting valve
C. exhaust valve
D. intake valve
46. Which of the factors listed has the greatest
effect on the mechanical efficiency of a diesel
engine?
A. Friction within the engine
B. Temperature of the intake air
C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger
D. Mechanical condition of the turbocharger
47. What describes the bore of a diesel engine?
A. The diameter of the cylinder
B. The length of the piston rod
C. The height of the piston
D. The volume of the cylinder
48. What is an indication that there is a cracked
cylinder head on a diesel engine?
A. There are combustion gases venting at the
expansion tank
B. There is an excessive lube oil consumption
C. There is water draining from the fuel leak off
valves
D. There is an excessive fuel oil consumption
49. Oil mist detector takes a succession of air
samples from all the compartments within the
crankcase. When is the oil mist detector alarm
activates?
A. When the concentration of mist is of the least
amount needed for ignition which is 2-5%
B. When the concentration of mist is of the least
amount needed for ignition which is 1%
C. When the concentration of mist is of the least
amount needed for ignition which is 6-10%
D. When the concentration of mist is of the least
amount needed for ignition which is 15%
50. Main air compressor is use for starting of
main engine at what pressure?
A. 25-30 bar
B. 35-40 bar
C. 50-60 bar
D. 36-68 bar
51. Injection lag in a diesel engine may be
caused by __________.
A. the flexibility of high pressure fuel lines
B. a change in the cetane number of the fuel
C. a decrease in the air temperature
D. a decrease in compression pressure
52. In the cylinder head of a two-stoke/cycle
diesel engine, valves are used for ______.
A. exhausting combustion gas
B. air intake
C. a fuel outlet
D. cooling water inlets
53. Which of the terms listed represents the
ratio between the highest and lowest fuel oil
pressure at which the burners will remain
ignited?
A. Turndown ratio
B. Air/fuel ratio
C. Modulating band ratio
D. Firing range ratio
54. Theoretically, what are by products of
perfect combustion in a diesel engine?
A. Water vapor and carbon dioxide
B. Aldehydes and carbon dioxide
C. Water vapor and carbon monoxide
D. Nitrogen and carbon monoxide
55. The control rack to a unit injector regulates
fuel delivery by ____________.
A. Rotating the plunger and position of the helix
B. altering spring tension on the plunger
C. altering the actual length of the plunger
stroke
D. regulating the lift of the check valve
56. What are he pinion gears used in main
propulsion reduction gear mechanisms
generally constructed of?
A. Forged steel
B. Aluminum
C. Bronze
D. Cast steel
57. The amount of oil atomized by the return
flow variable capacity atomizer, used with
some automatically fired boilers, is controlled
by the ________.
A. oil pressure in the oil return line
B. amount of air admitted to the atomizer
C. proportioning device in the atomizer fuel
valve
D. quantity of oil delivered by the service
pump
58. What pressure does a naturally aspirated
diesel engine at full throttle have in an intake
manifold?
A. Slightly less than atmospheric pressure
B. Approximately equal to exhaust manifold
pressure at all times
C. Widely fluctuating
D. Constantly decreasing as engine load
increases
59. How do you determine the engine
displacement of the cylinder?
A. Area times the stroke, times the number of
cylinders
B. Area times the stroke
C. Volume times the stroke, times the number
of cylinders
D. Volume times the stroke
60. The boiler feedwater control valve varies the
unity relationship between steam and water
flow in what condition?
A. At load change
B. At minimum boiler load
C. During steady boiler load
D. When in overload operation
61. In comparison to straight flow mechanical
atomizers, return flow atomizers provide
relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing
range due to the ________.
A. oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at
low loads to the point where poor atomization
occurs
B. back pressure regulation resulting in more
complete combustion at high firing rates
C. rotational motion imparted by the tangential
slots being greater in the return flow atomizer
D. return flow atomizer being designed for best
combustion at low firing rates.
62. Before any auxiliary diesel engine hydraulic
starting system is opened for servicing or
repair, What should you do first?
A. Bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the
system
B. Block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure
covers
C. Place all control levers in the 'HOLD' position
D. Ensure that the hydraulic fluid reservoir is
full
63. What should you do to properly blowdown a
boiler gage glass?
A. Blow through the bottom (water) connection
first
B. Blow through the top (steam) connection
first
C. Take up snugly on upper and lower gage glass
packing nuts prior to blowing down
D. Never disconnect the chains that connect the
upper and lower cut out valves
64. What harmful condition can result if a diesel
engine is operated at very light loads for long
period of time?
A. Increased carbon build up
B. Burning of intake valves
C. Excessive firing pressures
D. Increased fuel consumption
65. What is the proper way to quickly reduce
high water level in a steaming boiler?
A. By surface blow valve
B. By bottom blow valve
C. By safety valve
D. By water column valve
66. Which of the following procedures will tell
you that the lube oil being used by the engine
is still in good condition?
A. By lube oil analysis
B. By continuous purification
C. By chemical treatment
D. By visual inspection
67. In a properly designed boiler, which of the
end points should be reached first?
A. Combustion
B. Carryover
C. Circulation
D. Evaporation
68. What is a practical way of checking for
excessive fuel injection in one cylinder of an
operating diesel engine?
A. Check the cylinder exhaust temperature
frequently
B. Check the cylinder exhaust for white smoke
C. Feel the high pressure fuel line
D. Isolate each cylinder and inspect the
injector
69. What component normally stops an auxiliary
turbine boiler feed pump?
A. Actuating the throttle hand tripping device
B. Closing the exhaust valve slightly
C. Increasing the load on the driven unit
D. Rotating the hand lube oil pump backwards
70. The thermal energy produced by an internal
combustion engine is transformed into
____________.
A. Mechanical energy
B. Combustion energy
C. Internal energy
D. External energy
71. Which of the following reasons represents
why the designed compression ratio of a
gasoline engine is lower than that of a diesel
engine?
A. The heat of compression is not used as an
ignition source of the fuel
B. Compression must be low for effective spark
ignition
C. Compression must be low for smooth
operation
D. Compression must be low to have effective
preignition
72. Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging
air temperatureat all times in a marine diesel
engine is not recommended due to the
possibility of the __________.
A. formation of excessive quantities of
condensate
B. compression pressure being greatly reduced
C. air charge density becoming too high
D. piston crown surfaces becoming too cold
73. During which of the listed piston strokes of a
four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, is the piston
moving downward?
A. Intake stroke
B. Compression stroke
C. Exhaust stroke
D. Pumping stroke
74. In the event of a failure of the pneumatic
control system, a multi-element feedwater
regulator is designed to operate in what
manner?
A. Manually controlled feedwater regulator
B. Constant-pressure regulator
C. Constant volume feedwater regulator
D. Thermo-hydraulic feedwater regulator
75. A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine
makes four strokes during each
______________.
A. mechanical cycle of operation
B. crankshaft revolution
C. cycle of two events
D. period of two combustion cycles
76. What determines the number of events
occurring in a cycle of operation in an internal
combustion engine?
A. Method of air charging a cylinder and
expelling exhaust gases
B. Crankshaft revolution
C. Number of pistons
D. Distance a piston travels during a stroke
77. Why do most large main propulsion diesel
engines use a duplex lube oil strainer?
A. Ensure a positive flow of oil at all times
B. Decrease the time required between
cleanings
C. Remove all large and small foreign objects
D. Ensure that all lube oil has been treated
twice
78. The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure
required for efficient injection depends
primarily on the __________.
A. maximum pressure in the engine cylinders
during injection
B. degree of cylinder air turbulence
C. duration of the injection delay period
D. quantity of the fuel to be injected
79. What is the unit of Brake specific fuel
consumption?
A. grams/bhp-hr
B. DEMA
C. PLAN
D. BTU/lb
80. The last two digits stamped on a fuel oil
atomizer sprayer plate represents the cross-
sectional area ratios of the tangential slots
and orifice. What does this ratio determine?
A. Angle of the cone
B. Density of the oil spray
C. Degree of atomization
D. Capacity of the atomizer
81. In a steam assist fuel oil atomizer, the steam
pressure is higher than the oil pressure at
what condition?
A. Minimum boiler load
B. Design boiler load
C. Low fuel viscosity
D. High fuel viscosity
82. Low pressure steam is used to keep air from
leaking into turbine casing along the turbine
shaft. For this purpose, which of the following
steam systems is used?
A. Gland sealing steam system
B. Direct admission of 241.3 kPa auxiliary steam
C. Superheated steam system
D. Gland leak off steam system
83. If a diesel engine operating at a light load
when compared to operating at heavy load,
What is its air/fuel ratio?
A. Higher
B. Directly proportional
C. Lower
D. Equal
84. Which of the listed boiler components is
used to equalize the distribution of water to
the generating tubes and provide an area for
the accumulation of loose scale and other
solid matter present in the boiler water?
A. Water drum and headers
B. Down comer
C. Steam drum
D. Water drum only
85. Fuel combustion in a diesel engine cylinder
should begin just before the piston reaches
top dead center and should ___________.
A. continue through the after-burning period
B. end when fuel injection has been completed
C. end at bottom dead center
D. be completed exactly at top dead center
86. What do you call the process of supplying a
diesel engine cylinder with air at a pressure
greater than atmospheric?
A. Supercharging
B. Engine displacement
C. Super aspirating
D. Air injection
87. What might cause a broken nozzle pintle in
a fuel injection valve?
A. Distortion of the spray pattern
B. Erosion of the valves
C. Clogging of the orifices
D. Corrosion of the spray nozzle
88. What is one of the operating conditions
sensed by a two-element feedwater
regulator?
A. Steam flow
B. Feedwater flow
C. Steam pressure
D. Fuel pressure
89. A two-element feedwater regulator
responds directly to changes in ________.
A. steam flow from the boiler
B. feedwater flow to the boiler
C. feedwater pump discharge pressure
D. DC heater water level
90. What is the caused of heat blisters forming
on the first row of the generating tubes?
A. Waterside deposits
B. Fireside deposits
C. Low water level
D. Flame impingement
91. The effective pump stroke of an individual
port-and-helix fuel injection pump is
determined by the ____________.
A. plunger control rack position
B. fuel delivery pressure
C. pump plunger diameter
D. total pump stroke
92. Movement of the control rack of the fuel
injector change the ___________.
A. quantity of fuel injected
B. fuel injection rate
C. fuel injection cycle
D. fuel pump delivery pressure
93. Where can a heat exchanger commonly
found in small auxiliary diesel engine?
A. Lube oil system
B. Fuel oil system
C. Governing system
D. Air starting system
94. Where is the major heat loss in a marine
boiler coming from?
A. Heat of combustion gases leaving the stack
B. Heat used in the economizer and air heater
C. Heat passing through the boiler casing
D. Heat required to change water into steam
95. What can cause poor combustion in a diesel
engine?
A. Low compression temperature
B. High compression pressure
C. High scavenge air pressure
D. Low exhaust pressure
96. Diesel engine injection lag is caused by
____________.
A. Compressibility of the fuel
B. high fuel oil supply flow
C. low cetane value of the fuel
D. excessive air turbulence
97. Compared to the return flow oil burner
system, an internally mixed steam atomizer
requires_________.
A. Less excess air
B. higher fuel oil viscocity
C. greater turbulence in the air/oil steam
D. higher air velocity
98. What is the possible cause of an individual
piston to knock when at TDC on a slow-speed,
two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel
engine?
I. early fuel injection
II. excessive bearing play within the running gear
III. overloading of the cylinder
A. I, II and III
B. I & II only
C. II only
D. I and II
99. Downcomers are installed between the inner
and outer boiler casings for what purpose?
I. Increase the end point of combustion
II. Increase the end point of circulation
A. II only
B. I only
C. Neither I or II
D. Both I and II
100. The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel
engine is dependent upon what factors?
I. temperature of compression
II. atomization of the fuel
III. penetration of the fuel
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. II only
D. I and II
101. In describing basic diesel engine operation,
what is the term event?
I. the production of high pressure gases
II. the removal of expended combustion gases
III. the admission of air to the cylinder
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. II only
D. I and II
102. Why is a diesel engine not to be operated
at low loads for long periods of time?
I. heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the
valves and in the exhaust
II. fuel dilution is increased at low load
III. exhaust valves may be damaged
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. II and III
D. I and II
103. Which of the events listed does NOT occur
during the instant the piston just reaches top
dead center?
A. Intake
B. Ignition
C. Power
D. Combustion
104. In addition to a nozzle,which of the choices
is part of fuel oil atomizer?
A. Sprayer plate
B. Ignition electrode
C. Burner one
D. Air cone
105. Exhaust valve openings in a two-cycle
diesel engine cylinder head are made as large
as practical to __________.
A. reduce the pumping loss associated with
scavenging
B. increase back pressure during the exhaust
process
C. facilitate periodic replacement of the valves
D. reduce tension on valve springs
106. What is an advantage of installing water
wall tubes in a boiler furnace?
A. Decrease refractory maintenance
B. Increase furnace size
C. reduce furnace temperature
D. Reduce combustion rates
107. If a single cylinder relief valve on a main
propulsion diesel engine begins to lift, but it is
not possible to secure the engine, which of
the following actions should be taken?
A. Secure or reduce fuel to that cylinder
B. Increase the cooling water flow to the engine
C. Screw down on the pressure adjusting spring
to decrease popping pressure
D. Re-adjust the injection timing
108. The most important factor in engine
performance is the actual power output at the
end of the crankshaft available for doing work.
What do you call this factor?
A. Brake horsepower
B. Indicated horsepower
C. Friction horsepower
D. Net horsepower
109. What is termed as the average pressure
exerted on a piston during each power stroke?
A. Mean effective pressure
B. Indicated horsepower
C. Compression pressure
D. Exhaust back pressure
110. The bottom blow valve should be used to
remove sludge and solids which have settled
out of circulation after the boiler __________.
A. is secured
B. is at full load
C. is at low load
D. is being brought up to steaming pressure
111. What will happen if you fail to remove the
carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder
when replacing the piston rings?
A. It can result to damaged upper piston rings
and/or ring lands
B. It can cause deformed piston skirts
C. It can cause scored piston walls
D. damaged cylinder liners
112. For a given size engine, the two-
stroke/cycle diesel engine will deliver more
power than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine
because ___________.
A. it develops twice as many power strokes at
the same speed
B. it has a longer power stroke
C. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke
D. higher combustion pressure is developed
114. Increasing the load on an engine using a
double-helix type injection pump varies the
effective stroke of the pump to start
__________.
A. earlier and end later
B. later and end earlier
C. and end later
D. and end earlier
113. What will happen to the steam turbine
propulsion unit at medium speed operating in an
area with extremely cold seawater and the main
circulating pump providing full cooling water flow
to the condenser?
A. It will result to an increased condensate due
excessive air accumulation from the condenser
B. It will result to an increased plant efficiency due
to increased condensatedepression
C. It will result to an excellent plant efficiency due
to higher attainable vacuum
D. It will result to an increased effectiveness of the
air ejectors due to the increased main
condenser vacuum
115. What should be multiplied to the area of
the piston in order to get the volume
displacement of a cylinder?
A. Length of the stroke
B. Length of the crankshaft
C. Volume of the clearance space
D. Weight of the piston
116. What might be the cause of improper fuel
oil burner atomization?
A. High fuel oil viscosity
B. Low draft air pressure
C. Using the same size burners tips in all
burners
D. High fuel oil temperature
117. What might be the possible cause why a
marine diesel engine will have poor
combustion?
A. Low intake air temperature
B. Low exhaust pressure
C. High scavenge air pressure
D. High compression pressure
118. What condition would cause panting in
steaming auxililiary boiler?
A. Insufficient combustion air
B. Low water level
C. Faulty flame scanner
D. Flame failure
119. What would be probably result if an
auxiliary diesel engine turbocharger failure?
A. The exhaust gases contain black smoke
B. Lower speed but higher exhaust gas
temperature
C. Decrease of kilowatt load
D. Lower exhaust gas temperature
120. As part of a safe and effective maintenance
onboard, what is the first valve to be opened
after completing the assembly of a newly
ovehauled and clean big lube oil cooler?
A. Sea water outlet
B. Lube oil outlet
C. Lube oil inlet
D. Sea water inlet
121. In a steam propulsion plant, where is the
primary source of auxiliary exhaust steam
coming from?
A. Main condenser
B. Main feed pumps
C. Distilling plant
D. Air heaters
122. What is the purpose of variable capacity
pressure atomizing fuel oil burner?
A. Provide a wide range of combustion
B. Maintain a constant fuel temperature
C. Maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization
D. Provide a constant fuel return pressure
123. What is the reason why when turbine rotor
shafts extend through the casing, an external
source of sealing steam is used in conjunction
with labyrinth packing?
A. Seal the casing during periods of low casing
pressure
B. Maintain the rotor journal temperature
C. Provide a constant flow to the gland leak off
condenser
D. Seal the casing during periods of high casing
pressure
124. When you are transferring fuel oil to the
storage tanks, what is the precaution to be
observed?
A. Sounding tanks frequently and reducing transfer
rate while topping off
B. Maintaining a supply of chemical dispersant to
clean up minor oil spills adjacent to the ship
C. Plugging gooseneck tank vents to prevent
accidental overflow
D. Maintaining a high transfer rate until a slight
trickle of oil is observed flowing from the
overflow line
125. A disadvantage of a two-stroke/cycle diesel
engine is ____________.
A. higher working temperatures of the piston
and cylinder
B. more power strokes per revolution
C. the use of scavenge air
D. more complicated valve gear
126. Where is chloride collected in a steaming
boiler?
A. Surface of water
B. Mud drum
C. Downcomers
D. Floor tubes
127. In a diesel engine cooling water system,
what does pH of 6.0 indicate?
A. Slightly acidic condition
B. Neutral condition of water
C. Over treatment of water
D. Slightly alkaline condition
128. As compared to a typical front fired boiler,
which of the listed conditions represents an
advantage of a top fired boiler?
A. More uniform heat distribution and gas dwell
is obtained within the furnace
B. No division tube wall separating the
convection and radiant sections of the
furnace is ever required
C. Superheating diaphragms may be omitted
D. A lower fuel flow rate can be allowed, thus
increasing economy.
129. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto
cycle does not occur in the theoretical Diesel
cycle?
A. The entire fuel charge is present for ignition
B. No pressure increase during combustion
C. Rapid pressure decrease during compression
D. Rapid volume increase during combustion
130. The amount of oil atomized by a straight
mechanical fuel oil burner depends on the
sprayer plate size and the ________.
A. Fuel oil pressure
B. oil return pressure
C. furnace air pressure
D. forced draft pressure
131. In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel
generator engine, the power impulse in an
individual cylinder occurs _____________.
A. once every crankshaft revolution
B. once every two crankshaft revolution
C. once every piston stroke
D. twice every piston stroke
132. How many power strokes per crankshaft
revolution are there in an eight cylinder, two-
stroke/cycle diesel engine?
A. Eight
B. One
C. Two
D. Four
133. While you are on duty and the M/E
suddenly stopped by the oil mist detection
system, which of the following procedures
should be carried out?
A. Wait for at least 15 minutes before opening
crankcase door
B. Open crankcase door and go inside
immediately
C. Cool down the M/E before going inside
D. Wait for at least 30 minutes before opening
crankcase.
134. Which of the following causes a cylinder
liner to crack?
A. Restricted cooling water passage
B. Operating the engine at low loads
C. Worn piston rings
D. Insufficient lubrication
135. In comparing engines of equal horsepower,
where is higher exhaust gas temperatures?
A. Four-stroke/cycle engine
B. Opposed-piston engine
C. Double-acting engine
D. Two-stroke/cycle engine
136. What component is used to maintain the
level in the atmospheric drain tank when
underway at sea?
A. Float-type regulator draining to the main
condenser
B. Overflow to the bilge drain tank
C. Overflow to a distillate tank
D. Vacuum drag to the air ejector condenser
137. If the engine jacket water temperature rises
rapidly, what should be the cause?
A. Clogged sea strainer in the raw water system
B. Overflowing expansion tank
C. Excessively high sea water velocity in the
cooler
D. Cooler clogged with marine growth
138. What will be the result if restricted air
intake to a diesel engine?
A. Failing to reach rated speed
B. Overspeeding and running away
C. Knocking under maximum load
D. Hunting or surging under light load
139. Where could be the source of
contamination if during your routine
inspection in the engine room you noticed
that the Generator Engine expansion tank has
fuel oil?
A. Fuel valve cooling
B. Piston cooling
C. Lube oil cooling
D. jacket cooling
140. What could be the possible cause why a
piston crown may crack?
A. Underside of piston crown dirty thus
lowering the heat transfer
B. Poor cooling of cylinder walls
C. Insufficient groove tolerance
D. High lubricating oil temperature
141. In the operating cycle of a four-stroke/cycle
diesel engine, blowdown to exhaust manifold
pressure must occur before the piston begins
the exhaust stroke to minimize __________.
A. pumping losses
B. pressure losses
C. exhaust pulsations
D. excessive scavenging
142. When starting a turbine driven boiler feed
pump, care should be taken to ensure that the
re-circulating valve is open, which of the
following valves should be closed when
starting?
A. Pump discharge valve
B. Pump suction valve
C. Turbine steam supply valve
D. Turbine exhaust valve
143. What will happen if there is an Increased of
the compression ratio of a diesel engine while
maintaining the designed rate of fuel flow?
A. Increased horsepower
B. Reduced efficiency
C. Increased heat loss
D. Lower cylinder pressures
144. What is the other use of the boiler surface
blow?
A. Remove floating impurities from boiler water
B. Remove most precipitated solids
C. Maintain boiler alkalinity
D. Disrupt circulation in a steaming boiler
145. The amount of fuel delivered by a helical
plunger type fuel injection pump is controlled
by ___________.
A. rotation of the pump plunger
B. rotation of the pump barrel
C. varying the pump supply pressure
D. varying the pump return pressure
146. In a boiler equipped with an automatic
feedwater regulator, what could cause erratic
variations in the water level?
A. High solids content and foaming in the drum
B. Ruptured feedwater control valve diaphragm
C. Low feedwater temperature
D. High feedwater temperature
147. Water-tube boiler screen tubes protect
which of the listed components from high
furnace temperatures?
A. Superheater tube bank
B. Saturated steam tube bank
C. Refractory
D. Water drum
148. What do you call the rows of tubes installed
along the walls, floor, and roof of the furnace?
A. Water walls
B. Screen tubes
C. Down comers
D. Water headers
149. What must be the appearance of a piston
compression rings during inspection for an
efficiently operating diesel engine?
A. shiny face and bottom, black back and top
B. shiny face, black top, back and bottom
C. shiny face, bottom, back and top
D. black face, bottom, back and top
150. Which type of feedwater regulator listed
provides the MOST effective regulation of
boiler water level under all operating
conditions?
A. Triple-element
B. Single-element
C. Double-element
D. Monothermonic
151.Engine clutches are used with which type of
main engine ?
A. Medium speed engines.
B. Slow speed engines.
C. High pressure steam turbines.
D. Low pressure steam turbines.
152. Which of the following statements represents
the advantage of using a small diameter boiler
tube over a larger diameter tube?
A. Small diameter tubes have a greater ratio of
generating surface area to the volume of
contained water
B. Small diameter tubes reduce the heating surface
area
C. Small diameter tubes are less affected by the
insulating properties of soot
D. Small diameter tubes provide for greater heat
transfer rates
153. Calcium minerals in boiler water are
precipitated out of solution by the use of
which of the listed chemicals?
A. Sodium phosphate
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Phenolphthalein
D. Caustic soda
154. What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the
cylinder of an operating diesel engine?
A. Heat of compression
B. Spark plug
C. Glow plug
D. Carburetor
155. What is the indication of an overloaded
main propulsion diesel engine?
A. High exhaust gas pyrometer readings
B. Sparks in the exhaust
C. White smoke in the exhaust
D. Blue smoke in the exhaust
156. What is indicated by the code number
32Y20 stamped on a burner sprayer plate?
A. Sprayer plate orifice was made with a size 32
drill
B. Sprayer plate orifice area is 0.32 square inch
C. Sprayer plate requires a size 20 tip
D. Sprayer plate requires a minimum of 20 psi
fuel pressure
157. When there is enough supply of fuel oil and
engine failed to turn over after air staring
valve has opened, what would be the cause?
A. Insufficient air pressure in the tank
B. Sticking of fuel pump plunger
C. Master starting valve is closed
D. Exhaust or intake valve maybe stuck in close
position
158. In a single furnace boiler, where is the
steam typically cooled for use as auxiliary
steam?
A. Desuperheater
B. Superheater
C. Air ejector
D. Condenser
159. What is the purpose of the relief valve in a
fuel oil service system?
A. Protect the service pump from high discharge
pressure
B. Supply constant pressure to the burner
combustion control valves
C. Control the oil pressure regulators
D. Regulate the atomizer oil pressure
160. What will happen if the compression ratio
is increased on any diesel engine?
A. Thermal efficiency will increase
B. The expansion ratio will decrease
C. Combustion will be slowed down
D. Thermal efficiency will decrease
161. The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder
by a unit injector is controlled by __________.
A. a metering helix
B. the firing pressure in the cylinder
C. varying the clearance between the injector
cam and the injector rocker arm
D. varying the length of the plunger stroke
162.In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will
be forced through the spray nozzle on each
upward stroke of the plunger depends on
____________.
A. The position of the helix groove relative to
the spill port
B. the pump supply pressure
C. the slope of the fuel cam
D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with
the rack
163. If all other conditions such as bore, stroke,
speed, and mean effective pressures are
equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will
develop approximately ___________.
A. twice the indicated horsepower as a four-
stroke/cycle engine
B. the same indicated horsepower as a four-
stroke/cycle engine
C. one power stroke for every two crankshaft
revolutions
D. one half the indicated horsepower as a four-
stroke/cycle engine
164. In a diesel engine, internal combustion
causes the piston to be moved by
____________.
A. the pressure of gases developed
B. the simple admission of fuel and air into
C. the combustion space only the concept of
reciprocity
D. specially designed parts connected to a
shaft
165. What is the main advantage of unit
injectors over other fuel injection system?
A. The lack of high pressure fuel lines
B. Their relatively low injection pressures
C. Reduced wear of spray orifices
D. The lessened chance of fuel leaks into the
engine sump
166. What is termed as the ratio of the brake
horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a
diesel engine?
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Volumetric efficiency
D. Brake thermal efficiency
167. If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result
of a leaking fuel line, what should you do first?
A. Isolate and secure the fuel system
B. Throw sand on the fire
C. Notify the engineer on watch
D. Extinguish the fire using a combination
nozzle with applicator
168. The port-and-helix metering pumps used in
diesel fuel injection systems, are usually
designed to produce a constant beginning and
a variable ending of fuel injection. These
pumps are usually ____________.
A. timed for port closing
B. timed for port opening
C. controlled by plunger stroke
D. controlled by cam stroke
169. What is/are the purpose/s of the boiler
drum air cock?
A. To admit air when the boiler is being
emptied, permit escaping of air when filled
and steam is forming.
B. To admit air when boiler is emptied
C. To check for the quality of steam produced
D. To remain in open position during boiler
operation to back-up the steam
170. Which of the following statements
represents the primary function of hand holes
used on a boiler?
A. To allow access into the headers
B. To allow access into the steam and water
drum
C. To allow access for cleaning in the stack
D. To provide access for cleaning out the
firebox.
171. Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop
a medium or high-speed diesel engine, why is
it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a
few minutes?
A. To prevent internal damage from local
overheating
B. To let the waste heat boiler reduce its rate of
steam generation
C. To ensure the fuel nozzles are flushed clean
D. To clear the smoke stack
172. What is the purpose of gland sealing steam
used during steam turbine operation?
A. Prevent loss of vacuum
B. To prevent contamination of oil
C. Air
D. Temperature
173. What is mainly the reason why fuel
injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are
provided with cooling?
A. To reduce carbon accumulation on the
nozzles
B. To reduce cold corrosion of the nozzles
C. To reduce fuel viscosity for better
atomization
D. To reduce fuel detonation in the cylinders