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A similar instance: And the Lord spoke unto Moses, and said unto him: I am the Lord,
etc. (Ex. VI, 2). What need was there to state in this context, I am the Lord? The reason

is that the Holy One, blessed be He, said to Moses: Although I have appointed you as
the god of Pharaoh, as is demonstrated by the text, See, I have set thee as a god to
Pharaoh (Ex. VII, 1), take care that My Godhead shall be over you, for I made you a
god over none but Pharaoh alone.



What is the implication of the text, The Lord of hosts; He is the King of glory. Selah ? It
signifies that He gives a share of His own glory to those who fear Him. How do you
prove this? He is called God, and He called Moses a god; See, I have set thee as a god to
Pharaoh (Ex. VII, 1). He quickens the dead, and He gave a share of His glory to Elijah so
that he also revived the dead; as is proved by the text, And Elijah said: See, thy son liveth
(I Kings XVII, 23). As for the king, the Messiah, He will clothe him in His own robes;
for it says, Honour and majesty wilt Thou lay upon him (Ps. XXI, 6).



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