Ficha de revisão

Superantigens

A) bind specifically to T helper cell receptors

B) bind without antigen specificity to the outer portion of T helper cells and
antigen presenting cells (APCs)

C) are bound inside specific MHC II antigens on APCs

D) bind to about 1 in 10,000 T cells

E) do not stimulate as many T helper cells as do antigens that bind with greater
specificity

Superantigens are produced by

A) superantibodies

B) Staphylococcus aureus in T cell dependent cytolysis

C) Staphylococcus aureus in toxic shock syndrome

D) E. coli in toxic shock syndrome

E) cells infected with specific viruses

Possible symptoms of toxic shock syndrome include

A) fever

B) diarrhea

C) nausea and vomiting

D) shock

E) all of the above

Toxic shock syndrome is a mild disease similar to other mild allergic reactions.

A) True

B) False
5

Superantigens are processed by antigen presenting cells.

A) True

B) False

In IgE mediated hypersensitivity, all of the following are needed except

A) antigen presenting cell

B) B cell

C) IgE antibody

D) mast cell

E) neutrophil

7 IgE molecules attach to

A) mast cells via their variable region

B) mast cells by their constant region

C) T helper cells by their variable region

D) plasma cells by their constant region

8 Histamine released by mast cells leads to all of the following symptoms except

A) capillary dilation

B) airway constriction

C) high fever

D) mucus secretion

E) itching

9 For a hypersensitivity response to occur, two bound IgE molecules on a mast cell must
react with a specific antigen.

A) True

B) False
10 Activated T helper cells produce cytokines, which stimulate B cells to proliferate and
differentiate into plasma cells capable of producing IgE.

A) True

B) False

11

Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during an allergic
response.

1 = Individual experiences symptoms

2 = Individual is sensitized to antigen

3 = IgE attaches to mast cells

4 = Antigen binds to IgE

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 1, 3, 4, 2

C) 2, 3, 1, 4

D) 2, 3, 4, 1

E) 2, 4, 3, 1

12 A hypersensitivity reaction occurs

A) during the first exposure to an antigen.

B) during a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.

C) in individuals with diseases of the immune system.

D) only in children.

E) only in individuals with asthma.

13 The inflammation response triggers all of the following EXCEPT

A) dilation of capillaries.

B) constriction of airways.

C) inhibition of mucus.

D) pain.

E) itching.
14 A plasma cell is a mature T-helper cell that produces antibodies.

A) True

B) False

15 Histamine is released from mast cells.

A) True

B) False

16

One known function of the cells of the thymus is to

A) produce and secrete thymic hormones

B) produce and secrete antibodies

C) act as antigen-presenting cells

D) produce and secrete interleukin-1

17

The structure of a lymph node can be described as

A) being divided into compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes and

macrophages

B) afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface

C) efferent vessels circulating lymph out of the node at its hilus

D) all of the above

18

The structure of a lymph node can be described as

A) being divided into compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes and

macrophages

B) afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface

C) efferent vessels circulating lymph out of the node at its hilus

D) all of the above

19

Which of the following is not a function of the spleen?

A) site of stem cell maturation into T and B cells

B) destruction of blood-borne pathogens by macrophages

 C) removal of worn-out blood cells and platelets by macrophages

D) storage of platelets

20

The ability of T-lymphocytes to recognize self from non-self antigens is developed in the

A) plasma cells

B) spleen

C) thymus

D) liver

21

Which person most likely has the largest thymus gland?

A) a third trimester fetus

B) a two-year-old

C) a 12-year-old

D) a 25-year-old

22

The spleen is much like a lymph node except that the spleen

A) does not store lymphocytes

B) filters lymph

C) filters blood

D) does not contain phagocytes

23

Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

A) production of lymphocytes

B) production of plasma proteins

C) filtration of cellular debris

D) filtration of foreign particles

24

The spleen can be described as

A) a bilobed organ located in the mediastinum

B) resembling a large lymph node

 C) functioning to produce T-lymphocytes

D) functioning to produce B-lymphocytes

25

A lysozyme is

A) an enzyme found in body fluids that flow over epithelial surfaces to destroy
certain bacteria

B) a type of antibody that makes a cell more recognizable to a phagocyte

C) a cytokine produced by helper T-cells

D) one of the self-antigens on the surface of antigen-presenting cells

26

Which of the following would most likely increase a person's risk of invasion by pathogenic
microbes?

A) increased urine flow

B) loss of epidermal tissue

C) increased action of cilia

D) increased intestinal motility

27

The function of interferons is to

A) break down bacterial cell walls

B) fragment bacterial DNA

C) opsonize microbes

D) prevent viral replication

28

Which of the following is a nonspecific mechanism of resistance?

A) activation of the complement via the alternative pathway

B) binding of an allergen to IgE molecules on mast cells

C) a delayed hypersensitivity response to poison ivy

D) cloning of B-cells in response to a measles vaccine

29

The cells that are primarily responsible for immunity are

A) lymphocytes and macrophages

B) neutrophils and lymphocytes

 C) monocytes and macrophages

D) lymphocytes and eosinophils

30

Which of the following is an example of a specific body defense mechanism?

A) phagocytosis

B) inflammation

C) fever

D) antibody production

31

Antibodies are

A) plasma cells

B) B-lymphocytes

C) T-lymphocytes

D) gamma globulin proteins

32

The process of coating a microbe with antibodies to make it more susceptible to phagocytosis
is

A) chemotaxis

B) opsonization

C) cloning

D) anergy

33

The antibodies involved in allergic reactions

A) are called allergens

B) are secreted by mast cells

C) belong to the IgE group

D) are produced by T-lymphocytes

34

A hapten is

A) a small substance that becomes antigenic when it binds to tissue proteins

B) the heavy chain of an immunoglobulin molecule

 C) the antigen binding site of an immunoglobulin molecule

D) the part of a lymphoid organ where antigens are processed

35

All of the following would have MHC-1 antigens except

A) neurons

B) lymphocytes

C) macrophages

D) erythrocytes

36

Which of the following possess Class II MHC antigens?

A) antigen-presenting cells

B) erythrocytes

C) cardiac muscle cells

D) simple columnar epithlial cells in the digestive tract

37

T-cells and B-cells are

A) phagocytes

B) antibodies

C) lymphocytes

D) part of the complement

38

Which of the following is an example of a specific immune response?

A) release of histamine from damaged cells

B) adherence of a macrophage to a microbe

C) release of interferon from virus-infected cells

D) opsonization of an antigen by IgG molecules

39

The immunoglobulin class of an antibody molecule is determined by the

A) structure of the L chains

B) structure of the variable region

C) structure of the constant region of the H chains

 D) function of the molecule

40

The antigen-binding site of an antibody molecule is contained in the

A) hinge region

B) disulfide bonds

C) constant region of the L chains

D) variable regions of the H and L chains

41

The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is

A) IgA

B) IgE

C) IgG

D) IgD

42

Following a primary immune response, plasma cells give rise to

A) T-cells

B) memory cells

C) natural killer cells

D) haptens

43

In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward

A) foreign antigens

B) self-antigens

C) antibodies

D) viruses

44

An antigen is ______, whereas an antibody is_______.

A) a foreign substance such as a protein or polysaccharide to which lymphocytes

respond; a globular protein that reacts with antigens to eliminate them

B) an immunoglobulin that is produced by lymph nodes in response to bacteria; a

foreign protein that enters the body and causes an immune reaction
 C) a hapten molecule that is quite complicated in shape; an enzyme that is
produced by the thymus gland to neutralize antigens

D) produced by T-cells; produced by B-cells

45

Which of the following antibody mechanisms is correctly described?

A) chemotaxis - activated enzymes attract neutrophils and macrophages into the

region where there are antigens

B) opsonization - activated enzymes altering cell membranes so that they are

more susceptible to phagocytosis

C) lysis - activated enzymes digest the membranes of foreign cells so that they
rupture

D) all of the above

46

An antigen is a foreign substance that causes _______, whereas an allergen is a foreign

substance that causes _________.

A) the activation of the complement; the formation of large numbers of T-

lymphocytes

B) immunity to develop; a loss of immunity

C) the release of histamine; the formation of plasma cells

D) the formation of antibodies; a hypersensitivity reaction

47

A primary immune response is ________, and a secondary immune response is ________.

A) very important; of less importance

B) the primary source of immunity; a back-up form of immunity in case the

primary response fails

C) production of antibodies after the body's initial exposure to an antigen; the

rapid production of large quantities of antibodies after subsequent exposure to the antigen

D) activation of the complement; production of antibodies

48

In cell-mediated immunity, the antigen is destroyed by

A) killer T-cells

B) mast cells

C) B-cells

D) antibodies
49

Proteins known as CD4 and CD8 are

A) attachment proteins on the surfaces of helper-T and cytotoxic T-cells

B) different protein chains seen in IgG and IgM antibodies

C) proteins on microbes that identify them as foreign

D) the proteins that antigen-presenting cells display along with foreign antigens

50

In specific immunity, competent T-cells are activated by

A) plasma cells

B) complement

C) antibodies

D) interleukin-1

51

Cytotoxic T-cells recognize antigens combined with

A) interleukin-1

B) CD8

C) MHC-I antigens

D) MHC-II antigens

52

T-lymphocytes are responsible for

A) programming macrophages

B) producing antibodies

C) cell-mediated immunity

D) humoral immunity

53

Cytotoxic T-cells destroy their target cells by releasing a substance that affects

A) cell membranes

B) lysosomes

C) ribosomes

D) DNA molecules
54

B-cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells in the

A) liver

B) bloodstream

C) lymph nodes

D) red pulp of the spleen

55

Immunoglobulins that circulate in the interstitial spaces and the bloodstream that attach to
mast cells and basophils to initiate an inflammatory response are

A) IgA

B) IgM

C) IgG

D) IgE

56

A vaccine produces its effects by

A) directly attacking the antigens and neutralizing them

B) opsonization

C) stimulating a primary immune response

D) causing cell lysis

57

Giving a patient an intravenous injection of immunoglobulin should

A) temporarily protect them from a specific disease via passively acquired

immunity

B) cause them to produce antibodies to a pathogen

C) protect them for several years

D) trigger activation of memory B-cells that make antibodies

58

The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing and recovering from a disease
is

A) naturally acquired active immunity

B) artificially acquired active immunity

C) artificially acquired passive immunity

 D) naturally acquired passive immunity

59

Injections of gamma globulin are sometimes given to provide

A) naturally acquired active immunity

B) artificially acquired active immunity

C) artificially acquired passive immunity

D) naturally acquired passive immunity

60

Which of the following cells is most affected as an individual ages?

A) B-cells

B) cytotoxic T-cells

C) helper T-cells

D) macrophages

Verdadeiros e Falsos

The response time for specific immunity results in no noticeable pathogenesis.

A) True

B) False

2
The reaction time for nonspecific defenses is just as long for a later exposure as it was for the
initial one.

A) True

B) False

T-cells tag or mark bacteria, toxins, and viruses for destruction.

A) True

B) False

Penicillin by itself is a hapten and is not antigenic.

A) True

B) False

Most human antibodies have more than one combining site and are trivalent.

A) True

B) False

IgG is the only immunoglobulin molecule able to cross the placenta and provide natural
immunity immunity in utero and to the neonate at birth.

A) True

B) False

MHC class I molecules are made by all cells of the body.

A) True

B) False

8
The total mature B-cell population of each individual carries B-cell antigen receptors (BCRs)
specific for many antigens; however, each mature B-cell possesses BCRs specific only for a
particular antigenic determinant.

A) True

B) False