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O Significado de Kecharitomene: Cheia de Graça e a

Imaculada Conceição (Lucas 1:28) Considerações


Lingüísticas e Exegéticas
Luke 1:28 [RSV]: "And he came to her and said, 'Hail, O favored
one, the Lord is with you!'"

[The RSVCE translates kecharitomene ("favored one" above) as


"full of grace"]
Lucas 1:28 E, entrando o anjo onde ela estava disse: Salve,
agraciada; o Senhor é contigo. (João Ferreira de Almeida
Revisada)
VER TB GENESIS 3:15
Maria é isenta do pecado original e este fato pode ser
demonstrado no versículo supra mencionado, particularmente na
saudação do anjo Gabriel a Maria: "Chaire, Kecharitomene"
(traduzida na Vulgata Latina como "Salve, Cheia de Graça").

Os protestantes são hostis à noção da sua isenção do pecado


original e por conseguinte relativamente a sua Imaculada
Conceição no momento de sua concepção, talvez porque sintam
que isto faça dela uma espécie de deusa e impropriamente a
separe do resto da humanidade.
Dentre algumas objeções situa-se aquela em que se diz que o
anjo Gabriel, quando da ocasião da saudação, usa o termo,
"Kecharitomene" que, por sua vez, é formado da mesma raiz
(charitoo). E que o termo grego também aparece em Efésios 1:6
"Para louvor e glória da sua graça, pela qual nos fez agradáveis
a si no Amado”.
A variante de charitoo aqui é echaritosen. Enquanto
Kecharitomene é um particípio perfeito passivo (vocativo).
Echaritosen é um aoristo do indicativo ativo.

O erudito protestante e linguista W.E. Vine concorda que charis


significa "um estado de graça, e.g., Rom. 5:2; 1 Pe 5:12; 2 Pe
3:18" (Vine, II, 170). Pode-se elaborar um forte argumento bíblico
por analogia quanto à isenção de pecado de Maria. Para S.
Paulo, graça (charis) é a antítese para a conquista do pecado
(ênfase nos seguintes versículos):

Romanos 6:14: "Pois o pecado não terá domínio sobre ti, uma
vez que não estás debaixo da lei, mas debaixo da graça." (cf.
Rom 5:17,20-21, 2 Cor 1:12, 2 Timóteo 1:9)

Somos salvos pela graça e apenas por ela:

Efésios 2:8-10: " Porque pela graça sois salvos, por meio da fé; e isto não vem
de vós, é dom de Deus; não vem das obras, para que ninguém se glorie. Porque
somos feitura sua, criados em Cristo Jesus para boas obras, as quais Deus antes
preparou para que andássemos nelas." (cf. Atos 15:11, Rom 3:24, 11:5,
Ef 2:5, Tito 2:11, 3:7, 1 Pe 1:10)
Assim, o argumento bíblico descrito acima prossegue como se vê
abaixo:

1. A graça nos salva.

2. A graça nos dá força para sermos santos, retos e sem pecado.


Então, para uma pessoa ficar cheia de graça deve ser salva e
excepcionalmente santo(a). É um "jogo equilibrado": quanto mais
graça se alcança, menos se peca. Pode-se olhar para a graça
como a “água” e o pecado como o “ar” em um copo vazio (nós).
Quando se põe água (graça), o pecado (ar) é deslocado. Um
copo cheio de água, contudo, não possui ar (veja também
conceitos similares em 1 Jo 1:7,9; 3:6,9; 5:18). Para estar
cheio(a) de graça deve-se estar sem pecado. Por consegüinte,
pode-se re-aplicar as duas proposições acima:

1. Para ficar cheio(a) da graça que salva é seguramente estar


salvo(a).

2. Para ficar cheio da graça que nos dá força para sermos


santos, retos e sem pecado é estar completamente sem pecado
através da mesma graça.

First, it was argued that St. Stephen was also described as "full of
grace" in Acts 6:8. But in that verse, the phrase is pleres charitos,
not kecharitomene. If the Greek terminology is different, then the
argument loses most or all of its relevance and force.

The second argument was from Eric Svendsen, a Protestant


apologist who specializes in opposing the Catholic Church. In one
of his books, he states that the root word for kecharitomene,
charitoo, is found elsewhere in Scripture (in the same participial
form as in Luke 1:28); therefore, Catholics should consistently
regard others to whom it is applied as sinless also:

. . . charitoo . . . occurs in the same participial form in Sir. 18:17


with no theological significance. It also occurs in Eph. 1:6 where it
is applied to all believers . . . Are we to conclude on this basis that
all believers are without original sin?

(Svendsen, 129)
Ephesians 1:5-6 reads, "He destined us in love to be his sons
through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, to the
praise of his glorious grace which he freely bestowed on us in the
Beloved."

Svendsen thinks this defeats the Catholic exegesis at Luke 1:28,


but the variant of charitoo (grace) here is different (echaritosen).
According to Marvin Vincent, a well-known Protestant linguist and
expert on biblical Greek, the meaning is:

. . . not "endued us with grace," nor "made us worthy of love," but,


as "grace - which he freely bestowed."

(Vincent, III, 365)


Vincent indicates different meanings for the word grace in Luke
1:28 and Ephesians 1:6. He holds to "endued with grace" as the
meaning in Luke 1:28, so he expressly contrasts the meaning
here with that passage. A.T. Robertson also defines the word in
the same fashion, as "he freely bestowed" (Robertson, IV, 518).

As for the grace bestowed here on all believers being parallel to


the fullness of grace bestowed upon the Blessed Virgin Mary, this
simply cannot logically be the case, once proper exegesis is
undertaken. Apart from the different meanings of the specific word
used, as shown, grace is possessed in different measure by
different believers, as seen elsewhere in Scripture:

2 Peter 3:18: "But grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord
and Savior Jesus Christ. To him be the glory both now and to the
day of eternity. Amen."
Ephesians 4:7: "But grace was given to each of us according to
the measure of Christ's gift." (cf. Acts 4:33, Rom 5:20, 6:1, James
4:6, 1 Pet 5:5, 2 Peter 1:2)
The "freely bestowed" grace of Ephesians 1:6, then, cannot
possibly be considered the equivalent of that "fullness of grace"
applied to Mary in Luke 1:28 because it refers to a huge group of
people, with different gifts and various levels of grace bestowed,
as the verses just cited show. Svendsen's argument is as
fallacious as the following analogy:

Suppose a group of Christian baseball players - some of the


greatest and the least talented alike - prayed to God before a
game:

"He destined us in love to be his ballplayers through Jesus Christ,


according to the purpose of his will, to the praise of his glorious
gift of athletic ability and talents which he freely bestowed on us in
the Beloved."

Obviously, God granted the talents and abilities of each


ballplayer, in the sense of being Creator and source of all good
things. But are these talents given in equal measure? Of course
not (see especially Ephesians 4:7). Likewise, grace is given in
different measure to believers. Therefore, Svendsen's argument
that Ephesians 1:6 is a direct parallel to Luke 1:28 collapses. The
mass of Christian believers as a whole possess neither the same
degree of grace nor of sanctity, and everyone knows this, from
experience and revelation alike.

But Mary (as an individual person) was addressed in an


extraordinary fashion by a title that, biblically, means the one so
addressed is particularly exemplified by the characteristics of the
title. Mary was "full of grace"; kecharitomene here takes on the
significance of a noun. No attempt to downplay or diminish the
significance of this will succeed. The meaning is all too clear.

Svendsen points out that Luke 1:28 uses the perfect tense,
whereas Ephesians 1:6 does not, and that Catholics might use
this argument to bolster their case (since that indicates a
difference between the two passages). But, he writes:

[T]his does not help their case since the perfect tense speaks only
of the current state of the subject without reference to how long
the subject has been in that state, or will be in that state.

(Svendsen, 129)
So he tries to show by cross-referencing and Greek grammar that
Luke 1:28 is neither unique nor a support for Mary's sinlessness
or the Immaculate Conception. But the perfect stem of a Greek
verb, denotes, according to Friedrich Blass and Albert DeBrunner,
"continuance of a completed action" (Greek Grammar of the New
Testament [Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1961], 66).
Mary, therefore, continues afterward to be full of the grace she
possessed at the time of the Annunciation. That cannot, of
course, be said of all believers in Ephesians 1:6, because of
differences of levels of grace, as shown earlier.

As for Svendsen’s cross-reference to Sirach 18:17, where the


word is in the same form (kecharitomene), that verse also applies
generally: "Indeed, does not a word surpass a good gift? Both are
to be found in a gracious man."

Moreover, this is proverbial, or wisdom literature. According to


standard hermeneutical principles, this is not the sort of biblical
literature on which to build doctrines or systematic theology (or
even precise meanings of words). The reason is that proverbial
expression admits of many exceptions. If one says, for example,
"Happy people smile" may be true much of the time, but it is not
always true. Proverbial language is, therefore, too imprecise to
use in determining exact theological propositions. Meaning
depends on context, as any lexicon will quickly prove.

Even apart from the important factor of the proverbial style of


writing found in Sirach, linguists attribute different meanings to
kecharitomene in the two verses. As Joseph Thayer, another
great biblical Greek scholar, writes:

Luke 1:28: "to pursue with grace, compass with favor; to honor
with blessings."

Sirach 18:17: "to make graceful i.e., charming, lovely, agreeable."

(Thayer, 667; Strong's word no. 5487)


Eric Svendsen's attempt to lump in Luke 1:28 with other "similar"
passages has failed, because reputable linguists demonstrate
that there are enough differences to cast doubt on his argument.
Context, grammar, and hermeneutical principles alike sink his
case.

Most Protestant thinkers and opponents of Catholic doctrine


would, I think, assume that the Immaculate Conception could
easily be disproven from Scripture. But from an analysis of the
verses cited, we see that, although it cannot be absolutely proven
from Scripture alone, it cannot be ruled out on the basis of
Scripture, either. What is more, a solid deductive and exegetical
basis for belief in Mary's sinlessness, and thus her Immaculate
Conception, can be drawn from Scripture alone.

SOURCE BIBLIOGRAPHY:

Kittel, Gerhard, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament,


edited by Gerhard Kittel and Gerhard Friedrich, translated and
abridged into one volume by Geoffrey W. Bromiley, Grand
Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1985.

Robertson, Archibald T. [Baptist], Word Pictures in the New


Testament, Nashville: Broadman Press, 1930, 6 volumes.
Available online.

Svendsen, Eric D., Who is My Mother?, Amityville, NY: Calvary


Press, 2001.

Thayer, Joseph H., Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament,


Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 1977; from 4th edition of
1901.

Vincent, Marvin R., Word Studies in the New Testament, Grand


Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 1946, four volumes, from 1887 edition
(New York: Charles Scribner’s Sons).

Vine, W.E., An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words,


Old Tappan, NJ: Fleming H. Revell Co., four volumes-in-one
edition, 1940.

White, James R., The Roman Catholic Controversy, Minneapolis:


Bethany House Publishers, 1996.
Kecharitomene indica, de acordo com
www.ao.net/~fmoeller/zchxxxi.htm (conversando sobre particípio
perfeito passivo num contexto diferente e em versículo distinto;
os colchetes indicam onde estou inserindo "agraciado" para a
palavra no texto relevante). Ver no final da página o texto
constante da página www.ao.net/~fmoeller/zchxxxi.htm
Algumas considerações sobre o termo Kecharitomene.
"A ação 'perfeita' do particípio é considerada por ter sido
completada antes do momento da fala daquele(a) que anuncia.
Quanto tempo antes não é considerado, mas a idéia do grego
verbal é a de que a ação já fora completada. O tempo é ainda
secundário, porém, a ação concluída deve implicar o passado no
relacionamento relativamente àquele que fala, ou seja, no
momento em que o anjo deu a notícia a Maria, ela, na verdade,
já havia sido [agraciada] antes mesmo do anúncio."
O tempo perfeito no grego denota um estado presente resultante
de uma ação passada (J. Gresham Machen, New Testament
Greek for Beginners, p. 187).
O tempo perfeito no grego é o passado com um significado
especial: é utilizado para se referir a uma ação passada, cujos
efeitos são sentidos no presente.
Segue abaixo alguns comentários de eruditos bíblicos acerca da
palavra "Kecharitomene", com base na definição da mesma e seu
uso gramatical:
“‘Altamente favorecida' (kecharitomene). Particípio perfeito
passivo de charitoo e significa dotada com graça (charis),
enriquecida com graça como em Efésios. 1:6, . . . A Vulgata
gratiae plena [cheia de graça] "é correta se significar 'cheia de
graça que tu tens recebido'; errado se significar 'cheia de graça
que tens de conceder' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the
New Testament, p. 14).
"É permissível no grego gramatical e no terreno lingüístico
parafrasear kecharitomene como completa, perfeita e
permanentemente dotada com graça." (Blass and DeBrunner,
Greek Grammar of the New Testament).
Contudo, Lucas 1:28 usa uma forma conjugada especial de
"charitoo." Ele usa "kecharitomene," enquanto que em Efésios
1:6 usa "echaritosen," que é uma forma diferente do verbo
"charitoo." Echaritosen significa "ele agraciou" (graça concedida).
Echaritosen significa uma ação momentânea, uma ação que
pode passar. (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New
Testament, p.166).
Enquanto que Kecharitomene, particípio perfeito passivo
demonstra uma integralidade com um resultado permanente.
Kecharitomene denota continuação de uma ação completa. (H.
W. Smyth, Greek Grammar [Cambridge: Harvard University
Press, 1968], p. 108-109, sec 1852:b; também Blass and
DeBrunner, p.175).

"conceder graça, mostrar favor a alguém. Aqui é o favor divino


para uma vocação especial..." (Fritz Rieneker/Cleon Rogers in
their Linguistic Key to the Greek New Testament) – título em
português – Chave Lingüística do N. Testamento – Ed. Vida.
Ironicamente, esta definição final é essencialmente coextensiva
com o entendimento católico do motivo da impecabilidade de
Maria --

It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds [footnote], to paraphrase kecharitomene as


completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace. Thus, in just this one verse, pregnant with meaning and far-
reaching implications, the uniqueness of Mary is strongly indicated, and the Immaculate Conception can rightly be
deemed entirely consistent with the meaning of this passage.

The Bible speaks only implicitly of many things which Protestants strongly believe, such as the proper mode of
baptism (immersion, sprinkling, or pouring?). The Immaculate Conception is entirely possible within scriptural
presuppositions.

[Blass & DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament, Chicago: Univ. of Chicago Press, 1961, 166; Smyth,
H.W., Greek Grammar, Cambridge: Harvard Univ. Press, 1968, sec. 1852:b.]
Uma Razão Suprema para o Privilégio: A Maternidade Divina
"e sem dúvida foi uma adaptação total que, de modo
maravilhoso, uma mãe deveria sempre resplandecer com a
glória da mais sublime santidade e assim, completamente livre de
toda mancha do pecado origina,l e de que ela triunfaria
completamente sobre a antiga serpente. Para ela, a vontade do
Pai em dar seu Filho unigênito --o Filho igual ao Pai e por Ele
criado, O Pai O ama de coração – e dar Seu Filho, de tal modo
que seria o único e o mesmo Filho comum de Deus Pai e da
Abençoada Virgem Maria. E foi ela a quem o próprio Filho
escolheu por sua Mãe e foi dela que o Espírito Santo desejou e
viabilizou, de modo que Ele deveria ser concebido e nascido de
quem Ele mesmo procede."
Encíclica Papal - Papa Pio IX, Ineffibilis Deus
Qualquer que seja a denotação de "chaire, Kecharitomene," sua
conotação, na verdade, significa para os antigos Pais Gregos
que precisamente Maria foi concebida de modo imaculado.
Os Pais Gregos
Eis aqui um número de experts antigos e o que eles dizem o que
isto significa; cada um deles é um grego nativo oriundo de uma
cultura basicamente idêntica àquela de S. Lucas. As passagens
são exposições pelos autores sobre o significado de Lucas 1:28,
geralmente centrados no termo chaire, Kecharitomene:

Gregório Taumaturgo (205-270 AD):


O mais pura criatura
O mais pura virgem
onde está o Espírito Santo, há todas as coisas prontamente
ordenadas. Onde a divina graça está presente, o solo que, não
cultivado inteiramente, produz abundantes frutos na vida da
carne, estava na posse da cidadania incorruptível e caminhou,
com tal modo de virtude e viveu uma vida mais excelente do que
o padrão comum do homem, tu tens se vestido com vestes de
pureza, foste selecionada como sagrada e de inteira beleza;
e através de teu santo, casto, puro e incorrupto útero, desde
toda a raça humana, tu és de nascimento, a santa criatura, a
mais honorável, a mais pura e a mais santa que qualquer outra
criatura: e tu tens a mente mais alva que a neve e um corpo
tornando mais puro do que qualquer ouro.
João, o Teólogo (c. 400 AD):
"[O] Senhor disse a sua Mãe, ‘Deixa teu coração regozijar-se e
ser feliz, pois todo o favor e todo o dom foram concedidos a ti por
meu Pai nos céus e por mim e pelo Espírito Santo. Toda alma
que te invocar não será envergonhada, mas encontrará
misericórdia, conforto e apoio, tanto neste mundo quanto naquele
que há de vir, na presença de meu Pai que está nos céus’" (The
Falling Asleep of Mary).
O Hino Acatisto (5º ou 6º século AD):
Hail, O you, through whom Joy will shine forth!
Hail, O you, through whom the curse will disappear!
Hail, O Restoration of the Fallen Adam!
Hail, O Redemption of the Tears of Eve!
Hail, O Peak above the reach of human thought!
Hail, O Depth even beyond the sight of angels!
Hail, O you who have become a Kingly Throne!
Hail, O you who carry Him Who Carries All!
Hail, O Star who manifest the Sun!
Hail, O Womb of the Divine Incarnation!
Hail, O you through whom creation is renewed!
Hail, O you through whom the Creator becomes a Babe!
Hail, O Bride and Maiden ever-pure!
Theodotus of Ancyra (early 5th century AD):
Hail, our desirable gladness;
Hail, O rejoicing of the churches;
Hail, O name that breathes out sweetness;
Hail, face that radiates divinity and grace;
Hail, most venerable memory;
Hail, O spiritual and saving fleece;
Hail, O Mother of unsetting splendor, filled with light;
Hail, unstained Mother of holiness;
Hail, most limpid font of the lifegiving wave;
Hail, new Mother, workshop of the birth.

Hail, ineffable mother of a mystery beyond understanding;


Hail, new book of a new Scripture, of which, as Isaiah tells, angels
and men are faithful witnesses;

Hail, alabaster jar of sanctifying ointment;


Hail, best trader of the coin of virginity;
Hail, creature embracing your Creator;
Hail, little container containing the Uncontainable.
According to Fr. Luigi Gambero, author of Mary and the Fathers
of the Church, "This kind of apostrophe addressed to the Virgin
occurs frequently in Greek homilies of the fifth century onward; it
constitutes a literary form called chairetismoi, form the Greek
word chaire, which translates as 'hail' or 'rejoice' (cf. LK 1:28)."

Romanos the Melodist (d. c. 560 AD):


Hail, untouched Virgin! Hail, chosen spouse of God! Hail holy one!
Hail, delightful and beautiful! Hail, joyful sight! Hail, unseeded
earth! Hail, uncontaminate! Hail, Mother who knows not man!
Hail, Virgin Bride!
This previous one appears also to be a commentary on Luke
1:28, but that's debatable. Another one of my favorite expositions
on the meaning of Kecharitomene occurs at this link, the rule for
an 11th or early 12th century Greek monastery; it's too long to
completely recite: http://www.doaks.org/typikaPDF/typ037.pdf
So, there you go, what pre-industrial Greek-speakers say
"Kecharitomene" means in the context of Luke 1:28.
Em Lc 1, 28 vemos que o Anjo do Senhor a saúda com o termo
em grego Kecharitoméne (=foi e permaneceu sempre repleta da
graça divino). O anjo não disse “Ave Maria”, mas “Alegra-te,
Kecharitoméne”, como se este fosse o nome próprio da Virgem.
O nome na Bíblia é muito importante. Jesus significa Salvador
porque Ele é o Salvador desde o momento em que foi concebido.
Maria é kecharitoméne !!!!!!!

Há um outro único texto do Novo Testamento em que ocorre o


mesmo verbo: “Bendito seja Deus... que nos agraciou
(echarítosen) no Amado” (Ef 1,3.6).

Maria vem a ser a primeira e a mais enriquecida - de forma plena


- de todas as criaturas por causa do Bem Amado Jesus !!! E isso
antes mesmo de dizer seu Sim a Deus !!!! Para Deus, nada é
impossível !!!! A Vitória de Jesus, os merecimentos de Jesus, a
Cruz, as chagas, o Sangue derramado ultrapassam os limites do
tempo e é aplicado a Maria, para que pudesse ser digna mãe de
tão grande e santo Filho !!!!! Filho esse que é Deus diante de
quem os Querubins e Serafins escondem o rosto e proclamam
sem cessar: "Santo ! Santo ! Santo ! "

No grego o termo: "kekarítomenê" é usado exclusivamente para


Maria. E a tradução correta nem seria "cheia de graça", mas
"sempre cheia de graça"
Zechariah Chapter XX

Will the Jews Accept Jesus as the Messiah?


Chapter XX

(Mt. 23:37) O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you that kill the prophets, and stone them who are
sent to you, how often would I have gathered your children together, even as a hen gathers
her chickens under her wings, and ye would not! (Mt. 23:38) Behold, your house is left to
you desolate. (Mt. 23:39) For I say to you, Ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say,
Blessed is he that comes in the name of the Lord.
Will The Jews accept Jesus as the Messiah before they see him again? I sincerely hope so. It is
quite possible that such a wonderful turn-around at his second coming will take place in the
Jewish nation. But the prediction of such an event will have to be found in another verse because
it cannot be found in the passage above, which is often used as a proof text of such an
eventuality. The way the passage reads in translation supports the implied idea that Jesus said to
the Jews of Jerusalem that they would see him again but not until they confessed him as the
Lord's messenger.
This is not the meaning of Jesus' words, and if it were it presents a problem, because they did see
very much more of him, and that both publicly and privately. In the next few days, after this
statement, He would be arrested, escorted to two different houses of the two High Priests,
confess his "sonship" in the evening to the Sanhedrin before they found him guilty on the next
morning; He would be marched all over the city, first to Pilate and then to Herod who sent him
back to Pilate again, and then be beaten for the third or fourth time and compelled to carry his
cross to the place of crucifixion where those who passed by on the highway hurled ridicule in his
face all day Friday. Jesus could hardly have meant that they would not "see" him. But read the
scripture and notice this problem which demands more investigation into the actual meaning of
the statement.
(Mt. 23:39) For I say to you, Ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he
that comes in the name of the Lord.
This verse (39) is not properly rendered in English because the Greek verbal system has been
over-simplified in translation. The only verbal phrase translating Greek idiom into English is, "I
say to you." In Greek there are no future verbs in the sentence even though the KJV translation
uses two and implies the third, i.e. "that comes." In Greek "ye see" and "ye say" are both aorist
subjunctive verbs. The verbal system in Greek does not show time outside of the indicative
mode. The subjunctive mode used here therefore could be any time but likely implies the future.
However, if the subjunctive idea is not stated, nor even implied, then the translation is not
conveying the major verbal idea intended in the original. The original sentence, in Greek, is
emphatically subjunctive. Time is altogether secondary.
It is difficult to render Greek idiom into English except with very ponderous and clumsy
construction. It is necessary to adjust the words to English idiom to smooth out the construction
so that it is readable. But meaning is lost in this kind of transfer. The smoother the translation the
greater the loss.
The meaning of the word "idate" ( ) or "see" is taken by some* to mean "know" or
"recognize" (relating the verb to "oida" rather than "horao"). Thus the first statement of Jesus
would be that, "it was doubtful that they would recognize him until..." Until what?
* Exell & Spence, op. cit.; (Lukyn Williams); Matthew, Vol. 15; pg. 406.
The second verb, "eipate," ( )is also an aorist subjunctive and means "ye may say" or "ye might
say." The idiom is difficult but the English translation using the future, which says that Jesus will not
appear to the Jews again until they confess his divine mission, is close but not exactly what He implied.
He did not imply that his future coming would be controlled by their confessing him as Lord. What is
stated is that it is doubtful that they will ever recognize who he is until the doubt in their minds is
removed about the validity of his initial divine mission. Thus, when the Jews are able to recognize and
clearly state his relevance to their own history, which they are reluctantly coming closer to doing, they
will then be able recognize in Jesus who he is.

The context favors this idea. "Oh Jerusalem, I would have taken you, I still would, but you did
not recognize me!" This is exactly what the companion passage says in Luke 19:42: "If you had
known, even you, at least in this your day, the things which belong to your peace! but now they
are hidden from your eyes." In other words, "you did not recognize me and you will not
recognize me [until]..."
Luke 13:35 quotes the same saying of Jesus and uses exactly the same verbs as Mt. 13:39 but
places Jesus in a different place, which would compound the initial problem posed in the third
paragraph; (he was yet in Galilee on his way to Jerusalem). The whole sentence is the same
except that the word "until" is a different Greek synonym, but no argument, as we have seen, is
created by any time at all, near or distant, being attributed to "until."
The rest of the verse is a quotation of that which will have been confessed. That which will
accompany, and be a result of, Jewish recognition, is a direct quotation from the Septuagint in
Ps. 118:26, "Blessed be he that comes in the name of the LORD." This verse also is better
understood with a Greek analysis. The word Blessed, "eulogamenos," ( ) is a
perfect passive participle. It literally means "having been blessed or praised." The "perfect"
action of the participle is considered to have been completed before the time of the speaker. How
long before is not a consideration but the Greek verbal idea is that the action has already been
completed. Time is still secondary but perfected action must imply the past in relationship to the
speaker. The person using the word is confessing that the one referred to has already been
blessed.
The verb "to be" is understood and is so noted in the KJV by the usual method of placing "is" in
italics. It is necessary to supply it because the verb "he that comes" is also a participle in Greek.
It is actually a famous participle, well known by all first century people, who were anticipating
the coming of the Messiah. In Greek it is "ho erchomenos" meaning "the coming one." It is a key
phrase that, all scripturally informed people knew, meant "Messiah." John the Baptist used it
when he sent messengers to ask of Jesus, in Mt. 11:3, "Are you he that should come, or do we
look for another?" The question uses exactly the same form, "he that should come" is the
translation of "ho erchomenos." ( ) He asked, "Are you the "ho erchomenos" or
do we look for another of a different kind (than you)?" The question is, "are you the "coming one
i.e. the Messiah?" Thus the quotation in literal terms means, "Already having been blessed is the
coming [Messiah], in the name of the Lord."
Thus Jesus said it was a precondition, needed by the Jews, that recognition of his first coming, as
a Messianic event, must take place first before recognition of who he is would be possible. And
so for the Jew, Jesus' first mission, not his second, must be seen by them as having been this
valid (Blessed) and relevant part of Jewish history. This much is required for Jews to be able to
recognize who is.
This is what Jesus said in Mt. 23:39: "From this time onward it is doubtful that you can
recognize me until you may be able to say, The Messianic Coming One, in the name of the
LORD, has already been praised [here]." Those who suppose that Jesus' majestic second
coming will produce faith in the Jewish nation miss the point of this passage. Since his first
coming it has been and will remain that every Jewish knee as well as every Gentile knee, must
bow, not to majesty, but to the humble carpenter of Galilee.