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Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 2
04 ago 2010
Conteúdo
LISTA DE PÁGINAS EM VIGOR 5
MANUAL DE PADRONIZAÇÃO/MANOBRAS
1. Recomendações: 13
2. Gerenciamento 13
3. Aproximação Estabilizada 14
4. Normas Operacionais. 15
5. Perfil de Saída IFR. 15
6. Uso do Radar. 15
7. Uso do Checklist. 15
8. Uso do Piloto Automático 15
9. Safety Exterior Inspection 16
10. Preliminary Cockpit Preparation 16
11. Cockpit Preparation 18
12. Before Start Checklist 22
13. Partida dos Motores 23
14. Cleared for Take-Off 26
15. After Take Off and Climb Procedures 30
16. Cruise Procedures 31
17. Descent Preparation (Aprox 80 NM ou 15 Minutos From T/D) 32
18. Descent Procedures 35
19. Approach Procedures: 36
20. ILS Approach 38
21. Aproximação de Não-Precisão (VOR/NDB) Selected 40
22. Aproximação de Não-Precisão (VOR/NDB/RNAV-GNSS) Managed 42
23. Aproximação Visual 47
24. Go Around 48
25. Landing 49
26. After Landing 50
27. Parking 51
28. Securing Aircraft (Scan Flow) 51
FMGS
1- Introdução 82
2 - Formato da página 83
ANOTAçÕES143
Páginas Data
01- 145 03 ago 2010
1. COMPOSIÇÃO DO CURSO.
O programa Jet Trainer é composto de duas partes:
- Parte Teórica
- Parte Prática
2. Parte Teórica
A fase teórica é composta por 6 aulas, com o objetivo de fornecer uma in-
trodução básica dos componentes da aeronave. As matérias tratam de itens
fundamentais para a operação de aeronaves a reação, como os Sistemas,
Equipamentos e Controles de Vôo.
Aula 01 - 2 horas
- Abertura.
- Manuseio de Manuais (QRH, FCOM 01 e 03).
- Acft Gen; Equip; Ice and Rain; Doors; Lights; Fire; e Indicating/ Recording System.
Aula 02 - 8 horas
- Landing Gear; Fuel; Eletrical System; e Hydraulic System.
- Comunications; Flight Deck; Ice and Rain Protection; e Pneumatic System
Aula 03 - 8 horas
- Engine; APU; Air Conditioning; Pressurization; Ventilation; e Flight Controls
- Avaliação (2 horas)
- Performance
3. Parte Prática
É estruturada da fase prática é dividida em duas fases distintas, de modo que
o piloto-aluno desenvolva, de forma progressiva e dentro dos padrões técni-
cos exigidos, a habilidade e a perícia necessárias à condução da aeronave
com segurança.
- FASE I: FMGS - 4 horas / 1 sessão
- FASE II: Simulador Airbus (JET) - 4 horas / 4 sessões
Sessão 01 - 4 horas
- Apresentação do Flight Deck
- Funções das teclas do MCDU / FCU
- Montagem do plano de vôo
- Execução do plano
- Funções do FMGS durante o vôo
ROTINA OPERACIONAL
Esta rotina operacional para as aeronaves A319/320/321 está baseada nos
seguintes manuais:
- AFM (Airplane Flight Manual)
- FCOM (Flight Crew Operations Manual)
- FCTM (Flight Crew Training Manual)
- QRH (Quick Reference Handbook)
A estrita observância dos manuais da aeronave, desta rotina operacional, das
orientações do Departamento de Instrução e dos regulamentos de tráfego
aéreo é de vital importância para o incremento dos conhecimentos obtidos
pelo aluno. Não substituindo a consulta do Manuais Originais da Aeronave e
de Treinamento que devem ser consultados em paralelo a este.
1. Recomendações:
Devido às características do automatismo, é muito importante que os pilotos
tenham um alto grau de interação com os sistemas e com o gerenciamento
da aeronave, e que concentrem a atenção no monitoramento do vôo como
um todo, elevando o nível de consciência situacional.
Todas as cartas de navegação necessárias para a fase do vôo deverão obri-
gatoriamente estar disponíveis e em lugar de fácil consulta para os pilotos, e
após seu uso, deverão ser guardadas na seqüência correta do manual.
2. Gerenciamento
O conceito de Glass Cockpit apresenta desafios para o gerenciamento de
situações que ocorrem durante o vôo principalmente durante a execução de
panes com degradação do automatismo. O gerenciamento de recursos está
diretamente ligado ao sucesso do vôo, e isto inclui o uso correto do checklist,
dos sistemas da aeronave e da divisão de trabalho na cabine de comando.
Os pilotos devem observar se a comunicação e a crew coordination estão
sendo feitas de forma correta e efetiva, senado que qualquer ajuste ou mu-
dança em equipamentos na cabine que de alguma forma causem influência
no vôo, devem ser anunciados. Isto inclui itens de FMGS, SPEED, ALT, NAV
AIDS, F/PLAN MODIFICATIONS...
O cross-check e a confirmação de entendido são obrigatórios em todas as fa-
ses do vôo. Os Standard Callouts foram desenvolvidos em função da ergono-
mia da cabine de comando e do correto gerenciamento dos pilotos diante de
situações normais e anormais, a fim de se obter o nível de consciência situa-
cional adequado para a segurança do vôo. Por isso seu uso é imprescindível.
PNF | PF
“APROXIMAÇÃO ESTABILIZADA” | “CHECKED”
PNF | PF
“APROXIMAÇÃO NÃO ESTABILIZADA” | “GO AROUND FLAPS”
6. Uso do Radar.
O radar deverá ser ligado ao alinhar a aeronave na pista, no início da decola-
gem, e permanecer ligado e ajustado durante todo o vôo.
7. Uso do Checklist.
Os checklists são do tipo: chamada e resposta. O PF responderá somente
após haver checado e se certificado da configuração.
Todo o checklist deverá ser efetuado em inglês.
Sempre que a leitura do checklist for interrompida, deve-se voltar ao inicio do
mesmo, ou seja, a partir do título até que todos os itens da seqüência estejam
completos (lidos e checados). Os itens precedidos de (∗) deverão ser cumpri-
dos no trânsito da aeronave. Como crew coordination, é adotado, o critério do
comando/ação/confirmação. O PF comanda, o PNF realiza a ação e depois
de realizada faz o callout de confirmação.
Exemplo:
PF | PNF
“GEAR DOWN” PNF | SELECT GEAR DOWN
(Após L/G checado DOWN) | (callout) > “GEAR DOWN”.
CM1 CM2
O comandante deverá checar o RTA(*) a docu- O procedimento referente a esta fase da
mentação da aerona-pve, os manuais e OEB’s preparação deverá ser executado obrigato-
em vigor, restrições da MEL e suas implica-ções riamente pelo CM2, utilizando o Preliminary
na performance da aeronave, devendo consultar Cockpit Preparation (QRH 3.01), que assegu-
obrigatoriamen-te os recursos disponíveis, como ra que todos os checks requeridos para a se-
o CCOA(MCC), DOV, para certificar-se que as gurança foram efetuados. Durante o trânsito
possíveis restrições não comprometam a segu- e em etapas intermediárias somente os itens
rança da operação. Qualquer tipo de restri-ção com (*) deverão ser checados.
de performance deve ser computada pelo DOV.
(Read and Do Checklist)
ENG MASTERS………..............CHECK OFF
ENG MODE SEL....................CHECK NORM
L/G lever DOWN
WIPERS..................................................OFF
BAT.......................................CHECK / AUTO
EXT PWR (if available) ……...…................ON
APU FIRE................................CHECK / TEST
APU....................................................START
*EXT PWR.......................................AS RQRD
*COCKPIT LIGHTS.........................AS RQRD
*PARKING BRAKE....................................ON
*ACCU / BRAKE PRESS……….........CHECK
ALTN BRAKING ................................CHECK
FLAPS..............................CHECK POSITION
SPEEDBRAKE lever….CHECK RETRACTED
PROBE WINDOW HEAT.......................AUTO
*APU BLEED............................................. ON
AIR COND panel .....................................SET
ELEC panel ........................................CHECK
VENT panel ........................................CHECK
*ECAM RECALL.................................PRESS
“Se houver STATUS, o CM1 deverá ser infor-
mado”.
*ECAM DOOR................CHECK OXI PRESS
*ECAM HYD........................CHECK OIL QTY
*ECAM ENG........................CHECK OIL QTY
EMER EQPT......................................CHECK
Checar os EMER EQPT ao assumir a aeronave).
CB PANEL´S......................................CHECK
Em caso de CB saltado informar ao CM1 e a
Manutenção.
**EXT WALK AROUND................PERFORM
CM1 CM2
GEAR PINS and COVERS...............CHECK ATIS.................................................OBTAIN
LAT CONSOLE
CM1 CM2
OXY MASK..........................................TEST OXY MASK..........................................TEST
CM1 CM2
Announce.............”GLARESHIELD CHECK” CHECK
“QNH……………............……………….xxxx” QNH……………............………..............xxxx
“FD………………………...........…………ON” FD............................................................ON
EFIS OPTION...................................“CSTR” EFIS OPTION......................................CSTR
EFIS MODE..............“ROSE NAV” ou “ARC” EFIS MODE...................ROSE NAV ou ARC
EFIS RANGE.....................................“10NM” EFIS RANGE.......................................10NM
NAVAID SELECTORS................“AS RQRD” NAVAID SELECTORS..................AS RQRD
“SPEED.........................................DASHED”
“HDG ............................................DASHED”
“HDG V/S – TRK FPA....................HDG V/S”
ALT WINDOW..................................... “xxxx”
“ALT OUTER KNOB….................100 /1.000”
“V/S...............................................DASHED”
Announce..................................“CHECKED” Announce..................................“CHECKED”
CM1 CM2
Announce:..............................“PFD CHECK” CHECK
“V1..................................................xxx in blu Speed.................................................at zero
“V2........................................xxx in magenta” V1...............................................xxxx in blue
“CLB / NAV / FD 1 and 2” V2........................................xxxx in magenta
“Altitude……............………...............…xxxx” CLB / NAV / FD 1 and 2
(FL)...…………..……………............……xxxx Altitude (FL)..………..……..............……xxxx
“Airport Elevation..................................xxxx” Airport Elevation.....................................xxxx
“QNH.....................................................xxxx” QNH.......................................................xxxx
“Heading/ND/RMI......................xxxx” Heading/ND/RMI....................................xxxx
Checar o stby compass ao assumir a acft.
ANNOUNCE……............………“CHECKED” ANNOUNCE..............................“CHECKED”
CM1 CM2
Announce “ND CHECK” CHECK CHECK
“GS zero, TAS dashes, Wind dashes” GS zero, TAS dashes, Wind dashes
“TO WPT........................................................xxx” TO WPT...................................................xxx
“Heading (to waypoint)..................................xxx” Heading (to waypoint)..............................xxx
“Distance...................................................xx NM” Distance..............................................xx NM
Announce.........................................“CHECKED
VOR / ADF in..................................................xxx VOR / ADF in............................................xxx
Announce........................................“CHECKED” Announce..................................“CHECKED”
CM1 CM2
Announce................................”FUEL PAGE” CHECK
Announce FuelQuantity is….xx KG Balanced”
ANNOUNCE..............................“CHECKED” ANNOUNCE..............................“CHECKED”
Ciente do despacho do vôo e da ATC clearance, o comandante deverá fazer o BRIEFING
DE DECOLAGEM.
CM1 CM2
Após o recebimento da autorização do órgão ATC para
realizar o acionamento, o comandante deve certificar-se
junto à manutenção de que o cheque de segurança foi efe-
tuado através do seguinte padrão de comunicação:
CM1 CM2
ENG MODE SEL......................................NORM GROUND SPOILERS...........................ARM
APU BLEED..................................................OFF RUD TRIM............................................. Zero
ELAPSED TIME..........................................RUN FLAPS…….........................…..........…..SET
ECAM STATUS......................................CHECK
ECAM DOOR.........................................CHECK
Checar slides armed. Se a taxiway estiver contaminada (slush), man-
ter os flaps recolhidos até o ponto de espera.
PITCH TRIM...........................................SET
WING ANTI ICE.............................AS RQRD
Confirmar com CM1.
ENG ANTI ICE...............................AS RQRD
Confirmar com CM1.
APU MASTER SW...…….......................OFF
Confirmar com CM1.
NW STRG DISC MEMO......….CHECK OUT
AFTER START C/L.................................... CALL AFTER START C/L.............................READ
MANUTENÇÃO.......”LIVRE DESCONECTAR,
SINAL VISUAL A DIREITA ou ESQUERDA”
ENGINE WARM UP
Após 2 h do corte, para evitar choque térmico, os motores deverão ser operados em idle ou pró-
ximo de idle por 5 min. antes de avançar as manetes para high power. O tempo de táxi pode ser
incluso no período de warm-up.
O táxi da aeronave deve ser feito com extrema cautela. Tarefas adminis-
trativas como preencher livro de bordo, não devem ser executadas neste
momento. Os pilotos devem estar com as cartas de solo/pátio abertas em
local de fácil consulta. O comandante deve efetuar um briefing das instruções
de táxi recebida, analisando atentamente a movimentação de aeronaves e
veículos na área de movimento/manobras. Para ingresso ou cruzamento de
RWY’s é obrigatório que todos os pilotos façam um cross-check da área em
volta da aeronave a fim de se evitar RWY incursion. Os pilotos não devem
permanecer HEAD DOWN durante o TAXI.
Após o check de sidestick, anunciar e che- “FULL LEFT, FULL RIGHT NEUTRAL”
car “RUDDER”
Após o CM1, o CM2 checa o right sidestick
PWS (if installed)….........……..……....AUTO
XPONDER/TCAS.………...........….....TA/RA
AUTO BRAKE.......................................MAX
TO CONFIG p/b.................................PRESS
ECAM MEMO...................CHECK NO BLUE
Announce........”RH SIDESTICK CHECKED”
FMGS:
F-PLN Page: Runway, SID respectiva, Constraints de velocidades e altitudes,
RADNAV Page: Sintonia dos auxílios-rádio necessários, PERF Page: Rwy,
Velocidades,(TO SHIFT se aplicável), Flaps/THS, Flex TO Temp.
CM1 CM2
ENG MODE SEL...........................AS RQRD
APP PATH CLEAR OF TRAFFIC........CHECK A ignição é necessária nos casos de chuva
CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF C/L...............CALL e/ou pista contaminada.
EXT LIGHTS..........................................SET
STROBE LIGHT ON
NOSE SW TO
RWY TURNOFF SW ON
LAND SW ON
Nota: Caso seja previsto permanecer sobre a
pista alinhado aguardando autorização para
decolagem, as luzes devem estar estendidas na
posição OFF e somente após a autorização para
iniciar a decolagem estas devem ser ligadas.
A Strobe Light e as LAND LIGHTS devem
ser ligadas ao cruzar pistas.
PACK 1+2.....................................AS RQRD
BRAKE FANS...........................CHECK OFF
CABIN CREW..................................ADVISE
“Tripulação, decolagem autorizada”
CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF C/L...........READ
ORDER.......................................“GEAR UP”
L/G LEVER................................SELECT UP
GRND SPLRS.................................DISARM
Atenção para não ativar o SPEED BRAKE.
RWY TO / TAXI LT.................................OFF
ANNOUNCE...............................“GEAR UP”
Checar L/G UP no MAIN PANEL.
ANNOUNCE..........................................FMA FMA...........................................“CHECKED”
A altitude mínima para iniciar curva após a
decolagem é 400FT. Com o AP OFF, evitar o uso do PTT do side
AP.................................................AS RQRD stick devido DUAL INPUT.
At thrust reduction altitude
THRUST LEVERS..............CLIMB THRUST PACK 1....................................................ON
After thrust reduction.
At acceleration altitude
ANNOUNCE..........................................FMA ANNOUNCE..............................“CHECKED”
“THR CLB /CLB ou OP CLB ou SRS, A/THR”
At F speed
ORDER.........................................“FLAPS 1” ANNOUNCE……........…“SPEED CHECKE”
“F” e “S” speed são as velocidades mínimas FLAPS...........................................SELECT1
para a retração dos flaps na configuração exis- CONFIRM/ANNOUNCE...............“FLAPS 1”
tente.Aguardar speed trend positiva.
At S speed
ORDER.........................................“FLAPS 0” ANNOUNCE.................“SPEED CHECKED”
FLAPS..........................................SELECT 0
CONFIRM/ANNOUNCE...............“FLAPS 0”
PACK 2....................................................ON
After flap retraction.
APU BLEED*.................................AS RQRD
APU MSW*....................................AS RQRD
MEMO.............................................REVIEW ENG MODE sel.............................AS RQRD
PF PNF
At transition altitude
ANNONNCE…....”TRANSITION ALTITUDE”
ANNOUNCE…............…”SET STANDARD”
ANNOUNCE........................….”STANDARD
CROSS-CHECKED PASSING FL(.) NOW“
ANNOUNCE……..............…….”CHECKED”
AFTER TAKEOFF/CLIMB C/L.CALL AFTER TAKEOFF/CLIMB C/L....READ
Nos EUA (QNH a 18.000 FT), o AFTER TAKE-
OFF/CLIMB C/L poderá ser solicitado após o
recolhimento dos FLAPS, ficando em stby o
ajuste de altímetro. Neste caso o item BARO
REF deve ser respondido STBY.
At FL 100
ANNOUNCE....................................“FL 100”
LDG LIGHTS..........................................OFF
SEAT BELTS.................................AS RQRD
Caso o co-piloto seja o PF, confirmar com o
comandante.
Em etapas curtas, o SEAT BELTS poderá
ser desligado após a TA.
ALT SEL KNOB.....................................1000
EFIS OPTION................................AS RQRD EFIS OPTION................................AS RQRD
ORDER:
- “RAD NAV...............................AS RQRD”
- “SEC F-PLAN..............…COPY ACTIVE”
- “OPT/MAX ALT..........................CHECK”
O vôo deverá ser planejado a fim de ficar num nível de vôo que seja próximo
do OPT. Como regra geral, voar a uma altitude 4.000 ft abaixo do OPT produz
um aumento de aprox. 5% no TRIP FUEL. Voar a uma altitude 8.000 ft abaixo
do OPT produz um aumento de mais de 10%.
Explorar ao máximo o uso de STEP CLIMB, sendo o seguinte o procedimento ideal:
- se o tempo de vôo nivelado for de pelo menos 1 (uma) hora, subir para
2.000 acima do OPT, pois isso fará com que a aeronave tenha a sua média
de consumo na altitude ótima. Se a intenção for voar acima do OPT (até o
teto), o aumento de consumo pode alcançar 3%.
PF PNF
ECAM MEMO……..........................REVIEW TCAS................................................BELOW
SYS PAGES..........................REVIEW (ALL)
Checar ECAM MEMO / ALL SYS PAGES
regularmente, em particular:
ENG: Pressão e Temp. do óleo
BLEED: Parâmetros normais
ELEC: Parâmetros e carga dos geradores
HYD: Qtd. de fluido
FUEL: Balanceamento
COND: Temp. do duto comparada com a zone
temp.
FLT CTL: Posição das superfícies de controle
FLIGHT PROGRESS........................CHECK FLIGHT PROGRESS…....................CHECK
Checar o progresso do vôo com a navegação.
Verificar de hora em hora as condições RVSM.
FUEL.......................................MONITOR FUEL ...................MONITOR
Comparar FUEL USED e FOB com a nave- Comparar FUEL USED e FOB com a nave-
gação. gação.
STEP FLIGHT LVL.....AS APPROPRIATE Efetuar as chamadas AIREP quando neces-
NAV ACCURACY.........................CHECK sário
RADAR TILT...............................ADJUST
CABIN TEMP...........................MONITOR
PF PNF
LANDING DATA..............................OBTAIN
As condições meteorológicas do destino de- Ciente das condições do destino e
verão ser obtidas a aproximadamente 80 NM alternativa, através da informação ATIS ou
ou 15 minutos do início da descida, com a pre- órgão ATC, o PNF separa as cartas previstas
paração do FMGS completa antes do início da para a aproximação e pouso, preenche a pági-
mesma. Durante esta preparação(briefing), o na de performance e o Landing Data Card, cal-
PF estará “head down”, por isso é importante culando os limites de LDG WT/WIND previstos.
que o PNF não se envolva em nenhuma ou- Em caso de aproximação de não precisão
tra atividade a não ser a pilotagem, enquanto calcula o VDP e informa as condições ao PF.
tiver o controle da aeronave.
FLY; NAVIGATE; COMMUNICATE (in this order)
APPR PREPARATION................PERFORM
STBY ASI(ISIS)…SET VAPP & GREEN DOT (Captain)
APPR BRIEFING.........................PERFORM Contato com a companhia via VHF/ACARS
para informações referentes a estimados, pro-
gramação, atendimentos especiais e restrições
DESCENT CLEARANCE...........OBTAIN
RAD NAV:
- VOR/DME: Inserir manualmente o indicativo do VOR/DME com o INBOUND
COURSE da ÓRBITA ou OUTBOUND COURSE em caso de afastamento direto.
- ADF: Inserir manualmente o indicativo do NDB caso o mesmo seja requeri-
do para a aproximação.
- ILS: Checar a freqüência e identificação do ILS. Não é recomendado inserir
manualmente o ILS, pois no caso de mudança de pista o ILS associado não
irá ser automaticamente modificado.
PROG: A critério. Selecionar o auxílio-rádio caso seja necessária a verifica-
ção de NAV ACCURACY e Predictive GPS selecionar o FAF (WPT Primary)
em caso de execução de Rnav (GPS) Approach com respectivo ETA.
O PNF deve estar atento ao briefing para que todos os pontos sejam escla-
recidos neste momento.
Deve-se levar em conta as condições meteorológicas esperadas para a des-
cida e aproximação.
PF PNF
ENG ANTI ICE...............................AS RQRD
CSTR P/B......................................AS RQRD CSTR P/B......................................AS RQRD
Executando “STAR” selecioná-lo ao iniciar a Executando “STAR” selecioná-lo ao iniciar a
descida, caso contrário, ao passar o FL100 descida, caso contrário, ao passar o FL100
ou 10.000FT. ou 10.000FT.
DESCENT…...................................INITIATE ANNOUNCE….................…..…”CHECKED”
ANNOUNCE..........................................FMA MCDU.................................................F-PLN
MCDU preferably...PROG / PERF DESC NPA APPR USE.................................PROG
PF……………...................................RADAR PNF:………......................……TERR ON ND
At FL100 or 10.000 FT
Em regiões montanhosas ou com a altitude do destino maior que 5000ft, o seat belt sign
deveser antecipado para o FL200 (Neste caso orientar a tripulação Comercial)
LDG LIGHTS…………......……....……….ON Announce.....................”FL100 ou 10.000FT”
SEAT BELTS...................................…….ON Announce:
- Ligar ou ciclar
- Caso o co-piloto seja o PF, confirmar com “Tripulação, preparar para o pouso”
o comandante.
ALT SEL knob.........................................100
ILS P/B..........................................AS RQRD ILS P/B..........................................AS RQRD
COMANDANTE…...ISIS ILS AS REQUIRED
EFIS OPTION......................................CSTR EFIS OPTION......................................CSTR
RADIO NAV......................................CHECK
NAV ACCURACY.........................MONITOR
GPS PRIMARY ou navigation accuracy check.
When cleared to altitude or below transition level
ANNOUNCE……........…..…...…”SET QNH” ANNOUNCE…..........”TRANSITION LEVEL”
ANNOUNCE…..……….........….”CHECKED” ANNOUNCE….....“QNH CROSS CHECKED
PASSING (...….) FT NOW MDA or DH XXXX”
ECAM STATUS................................CHECK
STBY ALT/ISIS SET QNH (LH SEAT PILOT)
AUTO BRAKE (MED) (RH SEAT PILOT)
BEFORE APPROACH C/L.................. CALL BEFORE APPROACH C/L..................READ
Nota: Aeroportos com procedimento IFR para apenas uma cabeceira, deve-
-se executar o perfil lateral e vertical do procedimento em uso até os mínimos
VFR (Teto 1500ft e visibilidade 5000 mts) e após, ingressar no circuito de
tráfego visual da pista em uso.
Regra de três
PF PNF
Initial approach
ENG MODE SEL.................................AS RQD ENG MODE SEL..............................AS RQD
10 NM to IAF
ORDER……......“ACTIVATE APPR PHASE” APPR PHASE..................................ACTIVE
POSITIONING..............................MONITOR CONFIRM/ANNOUNCE….............….”APPR
SPEED DOWN……....……….......MONITOR PHASE ACTIVATED”
RADAR TILT...................................ADJUST
When cleared for ILS approach
APPR P/B..............................................ARM
BOTH AP.......................................ENGAGE
FMA..........................................ANNOUNCE FMA...........................................“CHECKED”
At green dot and below VFE
ORDER.........................................“FLAPS 1” Announce.....................“SPEED CHECKED”
FLAPS..........................................SELECT 1
CONFIRM/ANNOUNCE…....……”FLAPS 1”
LOC CAPTURE............................MONITOR
ANNOUNCE......................................“LOC*” FMA...........................................“CHECKED”
GLIDE SLOPE CAPTURE….…...MONITOR
ANNOUNCE.........................................“GS*” FMA...........................................“CHECKED”
ORDER.......“SET GO AROUND ALTITUDE” GO AROUND ALT..................................SET
ANNOUNCE………................“GO AROUND
ALTITUDE xxx SET”
At 2000 FT AGL (minimum)
ORDER.........................................“FLAPS 2” Announce.....................“SPEED CHECKED”
Se for interceptar o G/S abaixo de 2000FT FLAPS..........................................SELECT 2
AGL,selecionar FLAPS 2 com um DOT abaixo. CONFIRM/ANNOUNCE……....…“FLAPS 2”
F SPEED...............................CHECK or SET
When FLAPS 2
ORDER................................“GEAR DOWN” L/G......................................SELECT DOWN
GRND SPLRS.......................................ARM
EXT LIGHTS..........................................SET
Nose Sw TAXI & Rwy Turn Off Sw ON
Em condições IMC Noturno somente ligar as
NOSE lights após atingir VMC
CONFIRM/ANNOUNCE…......GEAR DOWN
Checar pressão residual no triple indicator.
When L/G down and below VFE
ORDER.........................................“FLAPS 3” ANNOUNCE.................“SPEED CHECKED”
FLAPS..........................................SELECT 3
CONFIRM / ANNOUNCE….....….”FLAPS 3”
VAPP..........................…….........…..CHECK
SLIDING TABLE.................................STOW SLIDING TABLE.................................STOW
FINAL C/L.............................................CALL
CABIN CREW..................................ADVISE
“Tripulação, pouso autorizado.”
FINAL C/L............................................READ
ANNOUNCE ANY FMA modification FLT PARAMETERS..........................CHECK
Announce any deviation in excess of:
V/S 1000 ft/min
IAS speed target + 10/–5
Pitch………….....…..2.5 degrees nose down
(319/320)……....……….10 degrees nose up
(321)………….....……...7.5 degrees nose up
POSITION/FLT PATH..............CHECK BANK………….....…………………7 degrees
PF PNF
“APROXIMAÇÃO ESTABILIZADA” “CHECKED”
Qualquer anúncio de desvio observado abaixo de 1000 ft AGL IMC e 500 ft
AGL VMC deverá ser anunciado o Callou:
“APROXIMAÇÃO NÃO ESTABILIZADA” “GO AROUND FLAPS”
Nota: A arremetida deve ser executada sempre que o componente de vento infor-
mado pelo PNF ao PF durante a aproximação exceder o limite Maximo permitido.
PF PNF
THRUST LEVERS..............................TOGA
ANNOUNCE.........…“GO AROUND-FLAPS” FLAPS.......................RETRACT ONE STEP
ROTATION..................................PERFORM ANNOUNCE...................“POSITIVE CLIMB”
FMA..........................................ANNOUNCE ANNOUNCE…….........…...……“CHECKED”
“MAN TOGA/SRS/GA TRK/ATHR BLUE”
FCU HDG/TRK-SELECTOR….........ORDER
PUSHOR PULL (NAV OR HDG) NAV or HDG…........…..SELECT ORDERED
FMA………………….............…ANNOUNCE FMA…………….........…...…….…CHECKED
At GA thrust reduction altitude
THRUST LEVERS....................................CL
At GA acceleration altitude
SPEED.........................................MONITOR FLAPS...............RETRACT ON SCHEDULE
± 45º de alinhamento com o gate solicitar Desligar a TAXI LIGHT (e RWY TO LIGHT).
“LIGHTS OFF”.
Select brake fans ON at least 5 minutes after the temperature check or when the Brakes Hot
Ecam Warning displays (To allow thermal equalization and stabilization and avoid oxidation
of brake surface hot spots). FCTM 02.180.
O uso dos Brake Fans conforme descrito garante um bom resfriamento dos freios, porém é
importante lembrar que, se for previsto um tempo de solo insuficiente para o resfriamento dos
freios, o uso dos Brake Fans passa a ser recomendado após livrar a pista.
FUEL PUMPS….....................................OFF
APU BLEED ............................................ON
BEACON LT ..........................................OFF
Anunciar “slides disarmed”.
SEAT BELTS.........................................OFF
ELAPSED TIME..................................STOP
EXT LT..........................................AS RQRD
Aguardar N2 XX
PARKING BRAKE..................................OFF
Mantenha contato com a equipe de solo
para certificar que a aeronave esteja calçada
e olhe para fora garantindo que a aeronave
não está em movimento antes de selecionar
o PRK BRK para OFF. PARKING C/L......................................READ
PARKING C/L.......................................CALL STATUS page...................................CHECK
IRS PERFORMANCE.......................CHECK
O Comandante deverá reportar qualquer Realizar Drift Check e Residual Ground Spe-
item em pane no RTA ou a palavra NIL (em ed Check pela POSITION MONITOR page
inglês, se necessário). (FCOM 3.03.25 – pág 2 e 3).
HEAVY RAIN
No caso de chuva forte após o corte dos motores, proceder de acordo com o FCOM 3.04.30
Ground Operations in Heavy Rain.
O Brake Fan deve ser desligado quando não for mais necessário (TEMP < 100°).
1.1 Generalidades
É importante notar que o AP estará disponível para a tripulação bem como
ambos os FD’s e o A/THR;
O PF estará voando a aeronave e cuidando das comunicações, enquanto o
PNF estará executando as ações do ECAM;
O PF irá solicitar sempre que necessário que o PNF interrompa as ações do
ECAM para recolher os flaps, selecionar proas ou altitudes, inserir dados no
FMGS ou tudo aquilo que lhe for conveniente e necessário. O PF irá utilizar a
expressão “STOP ECAM” para interromper o procedimento e quando solicitar
a retomada do mesmo irá utilizar a expressão “CONTINUE ECAM”.
Mantenha o Glide até o pouso, evitando ficar alto ou baixo na Aproximação Final.
Erros comuns
- Esquecer que com fogo no motor após a decolagem, a aeronave ainda
está bimotor (seguir o SRS);
- Tendência em adiantar o pedido de ECAM actions antes dos 1.000 pés,
sem necessidade para tal;
- O PF monitora as ações de combate mas não identifica o momento em
que o fogo foi extinto;
- Coordenação inadequada dos procedimentos e leitura de ECAM;
- Não coordenação com o CCOA;
- Decisão inapropriada, no caso de não apagar o fogo, com relação a pre-
paração para o retorno.
2.1 Generalidades
A descida de emergência SOMENTE deve ser iniciada após a confirmação que
a altitude e a razão de subida da cabine são excessivas e estão fora de controle.
É FUNDAMENTAL QUE SEJA IDENTIFICADO O MOTIVO DA PERDA DE
PRESSURIZAÇÃO, PARA QUE TODAS AS TENTATIVAS DE SE RESTA-
BELECER O SISTEMA E O CONTROLE DA ALTITUDE DE CABINE SEJAM
EFETUADAS, EVITANDO DESTA FORMA O INÍCIO DE UMA DESCIDA DE
EMERGÊNCIA DESNECESSÁRIA.
Caso a tripulação verifique que não é possível controlar a altitude da cabine, ou
caso seja uma situação de despressurização explosiva, a descida de Emergên-
cia deverá ser iniciada, lembrando que este procedimento deve inicialmente ser
cumprido como item de memória. O uso do AP e auto thrust é recomendável. A
seleção do FCU para uma descida de emergência progride da direita para a es-
querda, ex. ALT, HDG, SPD. Os speed brakes devem ser estendidos lentamen-
te monitorando a VLS para evitar a ativação da proteção de ângulo de ataque.
Isto causaria retração dos speed brakes e, também, a desconexão do Auto Pilot,
além da redução na razão de descida. Se há suspeita de dano estrutural, deve-
-se ter cautela no uso dos speed brakes para evitar stress adicional da estrutura.
Quando a aeronave estabilizar na descida, após cumprir os itens de memó-
ria, o PF deve solicitar as ECAM actions, após a realização destas ações
solicitar o “Emergency Descent Paper Check List” (QRH), e as tabelas de
performance referentes a está situação.
EMER DESCENT
IMMEDIATE ACTIONS
- CREW OXY MASKS...............................................................................ON
The recommendation is to descend with the AP engaged:
-Turn the ALT selector knob and pull.
-Turn the HDG selector knob and pull.
-Adjust the target SPD/MACH.
-THR LEVERS (If A/THR not engaged)...................................................IDLE
-SPD BRK..............................................................................................FULL
Extention of the speedbrakes will significantly increase V/S.
To avoid AP disconnection and automatic retraction of the speedbrakes,
due to possible activation of Agle-of-Attack protection, allow the speed to
increase before starting to use the speedbrakes.
WHEN DESCENT ESTABILISHED
EMER DESCENT FL 100, or minimum allowable altitude.
-SPEED.......................................................................MAX/APPROPRIATE
CAUTION
Descend at the maximum appropriate speed. If structural damage is sus-
pected, use the flight controls with care and reduce speed as appropriate.
Landing gear maybe extended below 25000 feet. In such a case, speed
must be reduced to VLO/VLE.
To save oxygen, set the oxygen diluter selector to the Nposition. If the oxy-
gen diluter selector remains at 100% the quantity of oxygen may not be
sufficientfor the entire emergency descent profile.
- O PF então comanda o knob de HDG (turn and pull) para a esquerda ou direi-
ta conforme a conveniência (analisar o fluxo de aerovias do setor sobrevoado
bem como possíveis elevações da rota);
Erros comuns:
- Errar em não tentar controlar a cabine ou restabelecer o sistema e iniciar a
descida de emergência sem necessidade;
- Não Anunciar “EMERGENCY DESCENT” ao iniciar a descida;
- Não colocar a máscara de oxigênio;
- Seleções de FCU na ordem errada;
- Não checar o FMA após as seleções no FCU;
- Definição errada da velocidade a ser utilizada na descida (High/Low Speed);
- Não utilizar o speed-brake;
- Esquecer de pedir Emerg. Descent paper check List;
- Nivelar a aeronave com speed-brake out;
- Não anunciar a informação de atingir 10.000 pés para os comissários (as);
3.2 Generalidades
É importante notar que o AP não estará disponível para a tripulação e ambos
os FD’s e o A/THR ainda funcionarão (será necessário desligar o ATHR).
Adicionalmente, dependendo do circuito hidráulico afetado, as características
de manejo da aeronave poderão ser
diferentes, devido à perda de algumas superfícies de comando. O PF deverá
manobrar cuidadosamente para evitar grande esforço do sistema hidráulico
remanescente. O PF estará bastante ocupado voando a aeronave e cuidando
das comunicações com os controles de vôo em Alternate Law.
Uma falha hidráulica dupla é uma situação de emergência, com LAND ASAP
em RED apresentado, devendo ser declarado MAYDAY para o ATC. Deve-
-se pousar tão logo quanto possível, devendo ser cumprido o ECAM antes
da aproximação. O PF irá requerer as ECAM actions. Uma clara leitura do
STATUS é essencial para avaliar a situação da aeronave e dar seqüência às
ações apropriadas durante a aproximação. Esta falha é chamada de “com-
plex procedure”.
O PF irá solicitar sempre que necessário que o PNF interrompa as ações do
ECAM para recolher os flaps, selecionar proas ou altitudes, inserir dados no
FMGS ou tudo aquilo que lhe for conveniente e necessário. O PF irá utilizar a
expressão “STOP ECAM” para interromper o procedimento e quando solicitar
a retomada do mesmo irá utilizar a expressão “CONTINUE ECAM”.
Por tratar-se de falha dupla hidráulica, o Trem de pouso deve ser baixado pelo
sistema alternado, não sendo possível seu recolhimento. No caso de arreme-
tida Isto causa algumas penalidades, principalmente com relação ao aumento
do consumo de combustível em vista da possível necessidade de se alternar
nesta condição. Ao efetuar a comunicação com o órgão ATC, informar que
será necessária a interdição da pista. Somente após a confirmação da Torre
de controle que a pista está disponível e reservada para o pouso é que o PF
deverá solicitar L/G down (L/G gravity extension check list – read and do).
Mantenha o Glide até o pouso, evitando ficar alto ou baixo na Aproximação Final.
Pouso
• Mantenha ALTA consciência situacional durante toda a Aproximação!
• Mantenha o Glide Slope até o toque!
• Tendência de “Nose down”
• Lembre-se que após L/G down – Aeronave em DIRECT LAW!
• Mesmo após atingir condições visuais, mantenha a referência de LOC/GLI-
DE até o toque!
Erros comuns
- Não Gerenciamento correto da pane, com leitura inadequada de ECAM e cálcu-
los de performance por vezes sem as correções necessárias(Ex: pista molhada);
- Não coordenação com o CCOA;
- Dificuldade de pilotagem;
- Desligar o ATHR tardiamente, dificultando assim a estabilização da aeronave
na final;
- Solicitação tardia do L/G Gravity Extension, interceptando o ILS muito veloz; o
que resulta em aproximação não estabilizada;
- Ao atingir condições visuais, abandona o ILS desestabilizando a aproximação;
- Um pouco antes do toque, abandona a referência do GLIDE provocando o
toque muito antes ou muito depois do ideal;
1- Introdução
O A319/320 possui Flight Management and Guidence System (FMGS) desen-
volvido para reduzir a carga de trabalho na cabine, aumentar a eficiência, au-
mentar a precisão da navegação e a performance da aeronave. O FMGS incui:
- Dois Flight Management and Guidance Conputers (FGMC)
- Dois Multifunction Control and Display Units (MCDU)
- Um Flight Control Unit (FCU)
- Dois Flight Augmentation Computers (FAC)
- Duas Throttles
- Engine Flight Instrument System CRTs
O MCDU serve como conexão entre a tripulação e o FMGC. Você usa o
MCDU como para selecionar a página apropriada para inserir os dados da
navegação bem como acessar informações relacionado e a performance da
aeronave. Em adição, o FGMC também como conexão entre o ACARS e
Aircraft integrated Data System (AIDS).
MCDU é “inteligente” no sentido em que ele sempre checa os dados que você
está tentando inserir. Se a informação não for lógica a inserção dos dados
não será efetivada (você não conseguirá inseri-la) ou o MCDU produzirá uma
mensagem de erro. Por exemplo, se você tentar inserir a latitude no lugar da
V1, o MCDU não aceitará a inserção do dado.
Para ajudar você a compreender os dados, o MCDU utiliza várias cores e
tamanhos para transmitir informações para a tripulação. A perfeita compreen-
são do uso do sistema será o caminho para ajudar você a dominar o MCDU.
As cores usadas no MCDU são combinadas com os dados do plano de vôo
demonstrados no Navigation Display (ND).
Letras Maiúsculas: Indica dados modificáveis. Isso pode ser uma inserção
do piloto ou dados que ele pode modificar.
O MCDU também usa certos símbolos para informar a você que os dados
têm características especiais.
Campo de rolagem vertical: aparece acima do campo da latitude e longi-
tude para indicar que o valor abaixo pode ser acrescido ou decrescido. Este
campo pode também aparecer embaixo da página no canto direito da tela
para indicar que o tamanho da página é excessivo e que você precisa usar a
ferramenta para rolar a página.
Asterisco (*): Indica que empurrando a chave que seleciona a linha aplicá-
vel, parâmetros que afetam a situação atual da aeronave irá mudar.
Assento circunflexo: Campos (< >) na página. Indica que outra página do
MCDU é acessível quando a chave seletora da linha é pressionada.
Fixo de sobrevôo: Este símbolo que tem o formato de triângulo aparece
próximo ao identificador de um ponto onde a aeronave tem que sobrevoar de
acordo com o plano de vôo.
Pseudo Waypoints: Aparece quando o FGMS gerar um waypoint para indi-
car que o VNAV (Vertical Nav Points). Isso inclui o Top of Climb (TOC),Top
of Descent (TOD), Speed Limit (SPD LIM), Step Climb Point (S/C), Step Des-
cent Point (S/D), e Deceleration Point (DECEL)
2 - Formato da página
Considere o MCDU como um livro completo com capítulos e páginas. A in-
formação fornecida pelo MCDU é dividida em capítulos com cada capítulo
composto por uma ou muitas páginas, dependendo do capítulo.
Para “ir” para um capítulo, você precisa uma das chaves de Function/Mode.
O MCDU mostrará a primeira página de um determinado “capítulo”.
Como você sabe se um “capítulo” tem mais de uma página? Uma seta (->)
no canto superior direito da tela indica que existe uma página adicional. Use
a chave NEXT PAGE para ir para a próxima página.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 83
04 ago 2010
Este é um pedaço de nosso livro. Cada capítulo contém páginas de tama-
nho variado. Algumas páginas são maiores que outras. Por essa razão, você
precisará rolar a página para cima e para baixo para ver a informação. Como
você saberá se precisa rolar a página? Um par de setas, (uma para cima e
outra para baixo) no canto direito inferior indicará o tipo da página que você
está vendo. Use a ferramenta VERTICAL SLEW para rolar a página.
Trabalhando com o MCDU, você receberá mensagens da unidade que forne-
cerá informações. Como de costume, a informação é de alguma forma, ocul-
ta. A lista abaixo representa várias mensagens que você poderá encontrar.
Para ter uma explicação mais profunda do significado da mensagem, clique
sobre ela.
4. To enable Ram air to the mixter unit, The Ram air switch should be used:
a) At any time
b) Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
c) When pressure is greater than 1 psi diff.
d) Only after outflow valve is fully opened.
9. Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is
automatically selected:
a) High
b) Normal
c) Low
d) Econ. Flow
10. Trim air valve, each one optimizes the temperature by:
a) Adding hot air
b) Adding fresh air
c) Modulating of pack flow
d) Adding recirculated air
13. Engine flow demand , when the heating or cooling demand in one zone
cannot be satisfied
a) The minimum idle must be increased manually
b) The minimum idle is increased automatically
c) In any case, flight idle is sufficient
d) The APU must be used to supply additional air.
15. What is the Max. negative Diff. pressure for the cabin?
a) 0 psi.
b) 1 psi.
c) 2 psi.
d) 8.6 psi.
17. What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?
a) Engine bleed air and recirculated air (only on ground)
b) Engine bleed air and recirculated air.
c) Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and
recirculated air.
d) Engine bleed air only.
18. During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect
to find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in?
a) Closed.
b) Open.
c) Closed or open regarding of the APU bleed valve.
19. What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?
a) They must be selected off.
b) They must be selected off on cold days only.
c) They must be selected off on hot days only.
d) They automatically close.
23. Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to LO?
a) With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and improve fuel efficiency.
b) With a low passenger load to increase cabin temperature
c) With a high passenger load to reduce cabin temperature
d) In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range.
24. Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL
VALVE fault light?
a) Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves.
b) Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the
switch position.
c) Indicates that the extract fan has stopped.
d) All of the above.
2. The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital elec-
tronic controller that performs the APU system logic for all modes of APU
operation such as:
a) Sequence and monitoring of start.
b) Speed and temperature monitoring.
c) Monitoring of bleed air and shut down.
d) All of the above.
3. When the APU Master Switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs:
a) Without delay in all cases.
b) Without a delay, in all cases.
c) With a delay if the bleed air was in use.
5. The APU has an integral independent lubrication system for lubrication and
cooling.
a) True.
b) False.
11. You switch off the APU but curiously you still have the APU AVAIL indi-
cations.
a) There is a fault with the APU master switch.
b) The APU will run for a cooling period of 60 to 120 seconds because you
have been using the APU bleed
c) You have to push the START SW to initiate the shut down sequence.
12. With the engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the APU
START push button and the EXT PWR push button, what is the source of
electrical power for the aircraft busses?
a) It is not possible to determine without checking the ECAM.
b) The aircraft batteries
c) The APU.
d) External power.
13. BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be selected ON if external power
is available.
a) It is normally left in the lights out position.
b) When selected OFF, the APU generator is de-energized.
c) Both are correct.
14. What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started using the
batteries only?
a) 15, 000 ft
b) 20, 000 ft
c) 25, 000 ft
d) 39, 000 ft
17. With nobody in the cockpit, if you have an APU FIRE, which statement is
correct?
a) On the ground, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle
will be discharged automatically.
b) On the ground, you have to perform the ECAM actions to shut down the
APU and extinguish the fire from the cockpit.
c) On the ground an APU AUTO shut down will occur but you have to dischar-
ge the APU fire bottle manually.
d) In the air, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will
be discharged automatically.
18. The basic element of the APU is a single shaft gas turbine which delivers
______ power for driving the accessory gearbox (electrical generator) and
produces bleed air (engine starting and pneumatic supply).
a) 2nd stage compressor
b) 3rd stage turbine
c) 2nd stage turbine.
d) Mechanical shaft
19. Fire on ground or in flight will cause the APU MASTER SW pushbutton
FAULT light to come on.
a) True.
b) False.
20. With battery power, what would an APU fire test look like?
a) APU FIRE pushbutton illuminated.
b) SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated
c) Both are correct.
21. The starter engages if the air intake is closed and the MASTER SW and
the START pushbuttons are ON.
a) True.
b) False.
24. What are some of the causes for an APU automatic shutdown?
a) Fire (on ground only), EGT overtemperature, No acceleration, low oil pressure.
b) Fire (on ground only), EGT overtemperature, Underspeed, Overspeed, low
oil pressure, high oil pressure
c) Fire (on ground only), EGT overtemperature, Reverse flow, Overspeed, low
oil pressure, high oil pressure
b) Fire (on ground only), underspeed, overspeed, EGT overtemperature, Re-
verse flow, Low oil pressure, DC power loss.
1. The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:
a) Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.
b) Performance optimization, A/THR and AP command
c) Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions
d) AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.
3. What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
a) The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
b) The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.
c) The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
d) The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.
10. The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
a) No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since
the IR was selected ON.
b) No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since
the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.
c) Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.
11. What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match
the clock date?
a) Check Data Base Cycle.
b) Check Data Base Date.
c) Check Effective Date.
d) Check the changeover date.
12. Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?
a) The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
b) The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.
c) Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
d) All of the above.
13. While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:
a) The flight controls revert to direct law.
b) The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
c) The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side
stick deflection is proportional to AOA.
14. What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?
a) 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.
b) 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.
16. The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible
to obtain some additional thrust?
a) Yes, by setting a higher speed target.
b) Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
c) No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 94
04 ago 2010
17. What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and dis-
played on the PFD’s?
a) Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
b) Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
c) Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.
d) Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.
18. Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?
a) Yes. b) No.
21. Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alter-
nate law?
a) Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.
b) Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
c) Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
24. If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach res-
trictions?
a) No
b) Yes, ILS approach only.
c) Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.
2. How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?
a) Use the MECH pushbutton on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.
b) Hold the PA button
c) Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP
d) Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP and hold the pushbutton
for 2 seconds
3. If the VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word ‘CALL’
a) An ACARS message is waiting.
b) Indicates a SELCAL
c) The N°1 flight attendant is calling
d) ATC is calling
7. If you depress the guarded NAV button, the MCDU RAD NAV pages are
inhibited and the RMP controls navaid tuning.
a) True.
b) False.
12. On the ground, CVR is stopped automatically ______ after the last engine
shutdown.
a) Immediately
b) 1 minute
c) 3 minutes
d) 5 minutes.
13. On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the
GND CTL pushbutton.
a) True.
b) False.
14. Only the last 60 minutes of recording are retained by the CVR.
a) True.
b) False.
16. The service interphone has ______ interphone jacks and an OVRD switch
located on the overhead panel.
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Eight
d) Ten
18. If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP
and frequencies and bars disappear from this RMP.
a) True. b) False.
23. If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC as-
signs a new communication frequency, what must be done?
a) The NAV key must be deselected and then press the transfer key.
b) Tune the new frequency on the offside RMP.
c) Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune
using the rotary selector, press the transfer key.
25. With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT3 position, the Captain
uses his acoustic equipment on ACP3.
a) True.
b) False.
1. How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?
a) The pin is engaged.
b) The red ring below the release button should not be in view.
c) The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was
closed.
d) The red ring below the release button should be in view.
2. Opening a passenger door from the outside disarms the door and the es-
cape slide.
a) True. b) False.
3. What does illumination of the red cabin pressure light represent on the main
cabin door?
a) This indicates that the evacuation slide is armed.
b) This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door
should not be opened.
c) Both are correct
7. Each passenger door has one CABIN PRESSURE warning light that:
a) Warns of residual pressure in the cabin.
b) Shows a possible unlocked door
c) Both are correct.
8. Where does the Door and Slide Control System (DSCS) generate warnings?
a) On ECAM.
b) On the doors.
c) Both are correct.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 99
04 ago 2010
9. What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?
a) It operates normally on HOT BAT bus.
b) It automatically unlocks.
c) It automatically locks from outside but stays unlock from inside.
10. The cockpit windows can be opened both from inside and outside.
a) True.
b) False.
11. What does illumination of the white slide armed light represent on the
main cabin door?
a) This indicates that the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use.
b) This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is
opened from inside the aircraft.
c) This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed.
d) This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed but
the slide is properly armed.
12. Can the flight compartment sliding windows be used as emergency exits?
a) Yes, in the cockpit coat closet is a rope ladder that can be used in such an
event.
b) Yes, there are escape ropes mounted above each window behind an ac-
cess panel.
c) No. They are not approved emergency exits.
d) No, they are too small.
13. When the electric pump is operating the FWD or AFT cargo doors, the
only other yellow system devices that can operate are braking and engine 2
reverse.
a) True.
b) False.
14. When the slide arming lever, on the emergency opening system, is in the
ARMED position, where is the slide connected?
a) To the brackets on the underside of the fuselage.
b) To the brackets above the door.
c) To the floor brackets on both sides of the door.
d) All of the above
15. When the Cargo door switch for the yellow hydraulic pump is in use, the
flight controls are:
a) Fully operational
b) Inhibited
c) Hydraulically locked by pressure from the electric pump
d) Only operated by the green system.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 100
04 ago 2010
16. The cockpit door:
a) Can only be open into the cockpit
b) Can only open into the cabin
c) Normally opens into the cockpit but can be forced in either direction
d) Slides in either direction.
18. If door handle is lifted and the white indicator illuminates, what does this
mean?
a) The escape slide is armed and if you go on lifting the handle, door opens
and slide will deploy.
b) Pneumatic assistance of the door has failed
c) The escape slide is in disarmed configuration
d) The cabin is still pressurized
1. You want to open the cabin door, whilst lifting the control handle the white
light illuminates. What does it mean?
a) There is residual pressure in the cabin.
b) The ramp is not correctly positioned.
c) The slide is still armed.
d) Somebody is trying to open the door from outside.
3. When the door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door
from the outside will:
a) Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.
b) Disarm the door.
c) The power assist will rapidly open the door.
4. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if AC bus #1 is un-
powered:
a) The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.
b) The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.
c) Both are correct.
8. What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?
a) The hood collapses to the point that it touches your face or by a flashing red
light in addition to the flashing green light.
b) The sound of the oxygen flow stops and flashing red and green lights appe-
ar.
c) No 02 supply indications, & lights only indicate time.
d) All of the above.
13. There is no other way of deploying the overwing escape slide if it fails to
deploy automatically on opening the emergency exit.
a) True.
b) False.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 103
04 ago 2010
14. What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?
a) Cancels the EVAC alert
b) Silences EVAC signals throughout the cabin and cockpit.
c) Silences Horn in cockpit.
d) None of the above.
15. The HALON fire extinguisher should be used on what type fires?
a) Electrical fires only.
b) Electrical and burning metals.
c) Electrical and flammable liquid fires.
d) Electrical and ordinary combustibles.
16. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if DC shed bus #1
is unpowered:
a) The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.
b) The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.
c) Both are correct.
17. Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?
a) OFF switch.
b) Only able to deactivate from cabin (#1 Flight attendant).
c) COMMAND switch.
d) HORN SHUT OFF.
1. The avionics compartement is the only area where there is no fire extin-
guishing system installed.
a) True.
b) False.
3. If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within _____ seconds of each
other a _____ will occur.
a) 8 sec./ a FIRE warning
b) 7 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
c) 10 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
d) 5 sec./ a FIRE warning
4. The aircraft has dual fire detector loops to ensure that a fault in one fire loop
will not affect fire detection capabilities.
a) True
b) False
8. The APU test switch on the APU Auto Exting panel when pushed will:
a) Test APU fire warning.
b) Test auto extinguishing.
c) Test auto shutdown circuit and shut down an operating APU.
d) All the above.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 105
04 ago 2010
9. When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out:
a) The Fire bottle is discharged.
b) The Fuel HP valve is closed.
c) The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
10. DISCH light on either the engine or APU fire agent switches indicates:
a) The APU or engine FIRE switch has been pushed.
b) The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.
c) A fault has occurred in the respective fire bottle.
12. Can the APU FIRE test be performedusing battery power only?
a) Yes.
b) No.
13. When the aircraft is on the ground and the APU is started on battery po-
wer only, is fire protection available?
a) Yes, the APU will initiate an auto shutdown and discharge the extinguishing
agent.
b) No, but the APU will initiate an auto shutdown.
c) No, automatic fire protection is only available if AC power is available.
14. How many fire extinguishing bottles are available for fighting an APU fire?
a) One.
b) Two.
c) One cylinder shared with the aft cargo compartment.
d) Two cylinders shared with the aft cargo compartment.
16. Engine heat sensing are located in pylon nacelle, engine core and fan
section.
a) True.
b) False.
17. After an APU fire has been detected how long will the chime continue to
sound?
a) Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
b) Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU FIRE push button.
c) Both are correct.
20. The aft cargo compartment smoke detection system consists of:
a) A dual loop smoke detector.
b) Four smoke detectors and a two channel smoke detection control unit.
c) One smoke detector, one smoke detection control unit and two automati-
cally discharging fire extinguishers.
d) Three smoke detectors, one smoke detection control unit and two automa-
tically discharging fire extinguishers.
21. If an engine fire is detected, when will the pedestal mounted red FIRE
annunciator light extinguish?
a) When the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
b) Only after the fire warning no longer exists.
c) Only after the crew selects the adjacent ENG MASTER switch to off.
22. How long will the red APU FIRE pb on the overhead be illuminated?
a) Until the crew pushes and releases the guarded red APU FIRE push button.
b) For as long as the fire warning is present.
c) Until the crew pushes the red MASTER WARN push button.
25. What is indicated by a missing red APU thermal plug during an exterior
preflight?
a) This is normal indication, the red APU thermal plug only appears if the APU
halon cylinder is low.
b) An APU fire agent thermal discharge has occurred.
c) An external fire discharge has been activated.
2. One A/P can be engaged on the ground if the engines are not running.
a) This A/P will disengage when both engines are started.
b) This A/P will disengage when one engine is started.
c) This A/P will disengage when speed is sensed at > 10 kts.
3. When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS upda-
tes its position at takeoff using:
a) IRS/DME/DME positioning.
b) IRS/ILS/DME positioning.
c) The navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU
by the pilot.
d) The VOR/DME currently tuned.
5. With the DATA selector set to HDG, the time remaining until the comple-
ted IRS alignment is displayed on the control display. How long does it take
normally?
a) Approximately 1 minute
b) Approximately 3 minutes
c) Approximately 7 minutes
d) Approximately 10 minutes
7. When flying at cruise altitude, the aircraft navigates using radio navaids
only.
a) True.
b) False.
10. The selected database date has expired. When must the active data base
be changed?
a) Prior to entering the preflight data.
b) Anytime prior to takeoff.
c) The following calendar day.
13. While taxiing on the ground, the FMGS displays the position of the aircraft using:
a) IRS and DME/DME.
b) IRS only.
c) IRS and VOR/DME.
d) DME/DME and VOR/DME.
14. With the autopilot engaged, either sidestick can be moved freely.
a) True.
b) False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengag
c) False, only the PNF’s sidestick will freely move.
21. The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?
a) Rose NAV or VOR.
b) Rose VOR or Rose ILS.
c) Rose NAV or ARC.
d) All modes except Plan.
23. You have been cleared to intercept the localizer. You have pushed the
LOC push button on the FCU. If all necessary data has been entered in the
MCDU, can you now engage both autopilots?
a) No, the LOC must capture before both autopilots will engage.
b) Yes.
c) No, the APPR pushbutton must be pushed.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 111
04 ago 2010
24. What does pushing the APPR push button do?
a) Arms managed navigation.
b) Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localizer and glide slope if
the information has been entered into the MCDU.
c) Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed.
d) Arms managed vertical navigation.
1. Refueling is possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power.
a) True
b) False
2. With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO; the center tank
pumps:
a) Run for two minutes after both engines are running.
b) Will not restart untill slats are retracted in flight.
c) Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty.
d) All the above.
3. Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner compartment of the
wing tanks occurs when the inner compartment quantity decreases to:
a) 250 kilograms
b) 450 kilograms
c) 750 kilograms
d) 5000 kilograms
4. What indication will you see on the overhead fuel panel if the center tank
has more than 250 kilograms of fuel and the left or right wing tank have less
than 5,000 kilograms.
a) Auto feed fault.
b) Fuel imbalance.
c) Mode select fault.
d) Fuel - Auto feed fault.
The Center tank is supposed to be emptied before the wing tanks
6. The fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed amber if:
a) One transfer valve fails to open.
b) Outer cell fuel temperature is high.
c) Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level.
7. An amber line appears across the last two digits of the ECAM FOB indica-
tion when:
a) Fuel quantity is unreliable.
b) The center tank pumps are switched off.
c) The center tank pumps have failed.
10. The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does this
mean?
a) The center tank fuel mode selector is OFF.
b) The center tank pumps are OFF.
c) At least one center tank pump is energized.
d) A reminder to switch the center tank pumps OFF.
12. Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached.
a) Yes, only on the refueling panel.
b) It is not possible to determine their position
c) Only on the ECAM Fuel page.
13. During normal operations when should the fuel transfer valves open?
a) When a low level is sensed in the center tank.
b) When a low level is sensed in either outer wing cell.
c) When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell.
14. What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel quantity
mean?
a) The fuel quantity indication is inaccurate.
b) The fuel quality is not good and should be checked.
c) A disagreement betwen fuel measured and fuel entered on the MCDU has
been detected.
d) Not all the fuel aboard is useable.
17. With fuel in the center tank, the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected
to AUTO and the CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), the center tank
pumps:
a) Will operate for a short period after the first engine MASTER switch is se-
lected ON and while slats are retracted.
b) They will continue to run until the center tank is empty or slats are extended.
c) Both are correct.
18. After engine start, center tank fuel pumps run for ______ minutes regard-
less of slat position.
a) 1 minute.
b) 2 minutes.
c) 3 minutes.
d) 5 minutes.
19. The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does
this mean?
a) It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open.
b) Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank.
c) It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve.
d) Fuel is transferring from the inner tank to the outer tank.
21. Why do the center tank pups stop automatically when then slats are ex-
tended for takeoff?
a) To keep the center of gravity as low as possible.
b) Dumping takeoff, the center tank fuel is pumped to the rear to trim aircraft
c) To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (feeding
segregation)
d) During takeoff, the center tank fuel is gravity fed only.
23. Refueling time at normal pump pressure is _____ minutes for the wing
tanks and _____ minutes for all tanks.
a) 15 & 25.
b) 17 & 20.
c) 15 & 20.
d) 25 & 35.
24. After engine shutdown, what are your actions to close the fuel transfer
valves?
a) You have to switch the inner tank pumps off.
b) You have to call maintenance to close the valves.
c) No action is required. The valves will close automatically during the next
refuelling.
26. How has the fuel been transferred from the outer to the inner tanks?
a) By setting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN.
b) The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low lever sensor
in the center tanks
c) By setting the MODE SEL PB to AUTO
d) The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low level sensor
in the inner tank.
28. The AC powered auxiliary fuel boost pump for the APU operates whene-
ver the APU is operating and no other pump is on. it has an alternate power
source on the AC Static Inverter bus for battery-only starts.
a) True.
b) False.
5. How many pumps has the yellow system to provide pressure (not counting
the PTU)?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
7. It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the
PTU when the parking brake is set.
a) True
b) False
8. The Eng Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is
selected to off except for:
a) Reservoir low level.
b) Pump low pressure.
c) An overheat.
11. The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes am-
ber when:
a) System pressure is below 1450 psi.
b) N2 is below idle.
c) The reservoir level is low.
12. The _____ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction.
a) Yellow.
b) Blue
c) Green
13. As long as the landing gear lever is up a hydraulic safety valve closes to
cut off the hydraulic supply to the gear when the airspeed is:
a) Greater than 260 KIAS.
b) Greater than 230 KIAS.
c) Less than 260 KIAS.
d) Less than 230 KIAS
15. The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes
except:
a) Anti-skid is inoperative.
b) Autobrakes are inoperative.
c) Both first statements are correct
16. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only; the
accumulator supplies:
a) Partial brakes.
b) At least seven full brake applications.
c) Alternate brakes with antiskid.
18. The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the
actual airplane deceleration corresponds to ______ % of the selected rate.
a) 80
b) 95
c) 100
d) 110
20. To extend the landing gear with the Gravity Extension Handcrank requires
_______ turns of the handle.
a) 3 counter-clockwise
b) 2 counter-clockwise
c) 3 clockwise
21. The aircraft’s three hydraulic systems are normally pressurized by:
a) Two engine driven pumps and one electric pump.
b) Two electric pumps and one PTU.
c) Two electric pumps and one engine driven pump.
d) Two electric pumps and two engine driven pumps.
22. When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is avai-
lable).
a) During the second engine start.
b) When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position.
c) If any N2 RPM is less than 45%.
d) When the yellow electric system ELEC PUMP push button is selected to
ON or the ground crew activates a cargo door switch.
23. What are the major equipment losses with loss of Green system?
a) Speed Brakes.
b) Nosewheel steering, Autobrakes.
c) Alternate Brakes.
d) The upper and lower rudders.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 119
04 ago 2010
24. The hydraulic PTU will activate if:
a) A significant pressure loss occurs in any of the three hydraulic systems.
b) A significant pressure loss occurs in the green or yellow hydraulic system.
c) Both are correct.
25. After extending the RAT, is it possible to check its position and status?
a) Check to see if the blue system ELEC PUMP FAULT light is not illuminated.
b) Yes, select the ECAM ELEC page.
c) Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.
d) No. It is not possible.
1. The ______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.
a) Slats
b) Flaps
c) Three outboard slats
7. The ECAM will display WING A. ICE when the wing anti-ice switch is on.
a) True
b) False
8. The Fault light on the engine anti-ice switches indicates the valve:
a) Is closed.
b) Position disagrees with switch position.
c) Is open.
9. What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights?
a) Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected po-
sition. Wing light also could indicate low pressure.
b) Both indicate low pressure, or valve position disagrees with selected posi-
tion. Wing light might indicate valve in transit.
c) Both indicate valve in transit, or low pressure. Wing light also could indicate
valve position disagrees with selected position.
d) Both indicate valve in transit, or overheat
11. If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provi-
des anti-icing for both engines.
a) True.
b) False.
c) Both engine anti-ice are independent.
13. With the loss of electrical power the engine anti-ice valves:
a) Fail in their current position.
b) Fail to the open position.
c) Fail to the closed position.
d) Fail to the mid position
14. With the loss of electrical power the wing anti-ice valves:
a) Fail in their current position.
b) Fail to the open position.
c) Fail to the closed position.
15. The drain masts are heated after first engine start.
a) True.
b) False.
The drain masts are heated any time the electrical system is powered.
19. What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open?
a) There is a fixed RPM increase.
b) The N1 limit for that engine is automatically increased.
c) The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced
d) There is a fixed RPM increase (3% of nominal N1)
24. The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by pla-
cing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton.
a) True.
b) False.
25. What happens to the heat at the drain masts when the aircraft is on the
ground?
a) Nothing.
b) The heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personel.
c) Some of them are automatically switched off (pitot, AOA).
2. On a bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean?
a) It is a reminder to land as soons as possible.
b) It indicates that there is a system page behind.
c) It means that there is more information to be seen.
10. The maximum speed to select next higher flap setting is indicated by two
amber dashes.
a) True.
b) False.
11. VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which
of the following modes?
a) VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE
NAV modes.
b) VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE
ILS modes respectively
c) Both are correct.
13. What is the meaning of ‘9000’ in blue at the top of the altitude scale?
a) It marks the FCU selected altitude.
b) It marks the airfield elevation.
c) It marks the transition altitude.
d) It marks the decision height.
15. After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display
units?
a) It is done automatically.
b) Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable.
c) Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed
DMC with DMC #3.
17. If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
a) By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the
ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
b) By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower
ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or FO’s ND.
c) Both are correct.
18. If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit?
a) System display page.
b) Engines and Warning page (E/WD)
c) Status page.
21. Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what
is the correct procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal
presentation?
a) Press the respective system push button again.
b) It goes away by itself.
c) Press CLR on the ECAM control panel.
d) Press twice CLR on the ECAM control panel.
22. After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What
does it mean?
a) It is an indication that at least one system requires crew attention.
b) It is an indication that the aircraft has not been shut down correctly.
c) It is a reminder that the status page holds a maintenance message.
24. Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications?
a) Yes, the E/WD is automatically transferred to one of the NDs.
b) No. The E/WD is lost until the aircraft can be repaired.
c) Yes, to get E/WD information. It must be manually transferred to one of the NDs.
d) Yes. E/WD information is automatically transferred to the the F/O’s PFD in the
event of an ECAM warning.
4. On the E/WD, you notice the NW STRG DISC memo. What does it mean?
a) The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel.
b) A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected.
c) There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering handwheel
positions
d) The nose wheel sterring computer has finished its self test.
5. During pushback, you start engine #2. You observe the NW STRG DISC
memo has changed to amber. Why?
a) The NW STRG disconnect mechanism has failed.
b) The yellow hydraulic system is now pressurized and the amber caption is a
warning not to move the handwheel
c) The nose wheel steering is being reconnected by ground personnel. It is
amber because the pin is removed.
d) The memo has become amber because one engine is running.
6. If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center
pedestal, landing gear position must be verified through:
a) The landing gear viewers.
b) The landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the
center panel LDG GEAR indicator panel lights.
c) Both are correct.
10. You are ready to taxi. You apply the toe brakes on the rudder pedals and
release the PARK BRK. The BRAKES pressure falls to zero. What should
you do?
a) This should not happen and you must assume that the BRAKES pressure
indicator has failed.
b) Nothing as this is normal. The BRAKES pressure indicator only indicates
alternate (yellow) brake pressure.
c) You must re-apply the PARK BRK and call for maintenance personnel as
the main system pressure has failed.
d) The indication is normal because once the AUTO BRK is set to MAX the
BRAKES indicator is by-passed.
11. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering?
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Green and Blue.
d) Yellow.
12. The antiskid deactivates when ground speed is less than ______.
a) 10 kts.
b) 20 kts.
c) 25 kts.
d) 30 kts.
13. If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID
& N/W STRG switch in the ON position:
a) The crew will be notified with an ECAM message after touchdown if the
brake system does malfunction.
b) The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.
c) The crew must manually select alternate brakes.
d) All of the above.
15. What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?
a) Open gear doors, unlock gear, drop gear.
b) Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors.
c) Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.
d) Open gear doors, shutoffs hydraulics, unlock gear, drop gear.
16. How many turns are required on the gravity extension hand crank to ex-
tend the landing gear?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
18. If the Landing Gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the
center pedestal, what other systems will be inoperative?
a) Nose wheel steering and auto braking.
b) Nose wheel steering only.
c) Anti-skid and auto braking.
d) Nose wheel steering and anti-skid.
19. Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.
a) True. b) False
20. Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if
green hydraulic pressure is available?
a) Restoration is always possible.
b) It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the
landing gear mechanism.
c) No, only maintenance can restore normal operation.
21. When the landing gear is gravity extended, will nose wheel steering be
available?
a) Only if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected ON.
b) No.
c) Limited nose wheel steering is available only through the captain’s rudder
pedals.
Manual de Treinamento Prático - Jet Trainer Airbus 131
04 ago 2010
22. Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:
a) The wheels spinning up.
b) The struts being compressed.
c) The brake pedals being depressed.
d) The ground spoiler extension command.
23. There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What
do they represent?
a) Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear.
b) Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computers
systems.
c) Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear.
d) The front triangle indicates the position of that gear and the back triangle
indicates the status of the brakes for that gear.
24. What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure
indicator indicate?
a) Yellow brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and
right brakes.
b) Yellow brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and
right brakes.
c) Yellow brake accumulator and green or yellow brake system pressure to
the left and right brakes.
d) Blue brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and
right brakes.
25. The normal brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure and the alterna-
te brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic
brake accumulator.
a) Green – Blue
b) Yellow - Blue
c) Yellow - Green
d) Green - Yellow.
1. On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the
oxygen cylinder?
a) The PRESS page.
b) The DOORS page.
c) The COND page.
d) The STATUS page.
3. Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to pro-
duce oxygen?
a) 15 minutes.
b) 20 minutes.
c) 25 minutes.
d) 30 minutes.
4. What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen
system?
a) There is no difference: both are served by oxygen cylinders.
b) Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder; passengers are supplied by
chemical oxygen generators .
c) Both the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical
oxygen generators.
d) The crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back-up supply.
6. What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?
a) Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
b) Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.
c) Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.
d) Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.
02-If BMG1 fails BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except:
a) Engine 1 and APU leak detection.
b) Overheat detection.
c) Automatic crossbleed valve control.
04-In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open:
a) The engine spools up automatically.
b) Engine power has to be increased by the pilot.
c) Push the High Pressure P/B on the ovhd panel.
05-The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if _______ pressure is
_______ or _______ airflow occurs
a) Downstream / low / reverse
b) Downstream / High / reverse
c) Upstream / low / reverse
d) Upstream / High / reverse
06-The crossbleed valve has two electric motors; one for the automatic mode
and one for the manual mode:
a) True
b) False
07-The overheat detection system uses a single loop for:
a) The pylons and APU.
b) The wings and pylons.
c) The wings and fuselage.
09-The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:
a) An engine bleed valve is open.
b) The APU bleed valve is open.
c) When engine start is selected.
15-If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails; pack flow will
go to what rate?
a) Low.
b) Medium.
c) High.
16-What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected
ON?
a) The outflow valve opens immediately.
b) The outflow valve opens if cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
c) Normal outflow valve control is maintained.
17-When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD; air from
the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
a) True.
b) False
22-When the cabin vertical speed exceeds _______ fpm; the vertical speed
display on ECAM _______.
a) 800 / flashes green
b) 2800 / flashes green
c) 1800 / flashes green
25-With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illumi-
nate when:
a) The valve position differs from that of the push button.
b) The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.
c) The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.
d) The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN or to SHUT.
ATUALIZAÇÕES E CORREÇÕES
Para atualizações ou correções neste manual,
encaminhe um e-mail para contato@ej.com.br.
Sua colaboração é muito importante para nós.
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